A 3-manifold $M$ is *irreducible* if every embedded 2-sphere bounds a 3-ball. Thanks to Papakyriakopoulos's sphere theorem, irreducibility is the same as having $\pi_2(M)=0$. Does irreduciblity imply that the manifold is in fact aspherical, i.e. that $\pi_k(M)=0$ for all $k \geq 2$?

(Or maybe I should say that the universal cover $\tilde M$ is aspherical, but the question is the same in terms of homotopy groups.)

As pointed out by @Matt Zaremsky in the comments, there is an obvious counterexample in $S^3$. But perhaps this is the only counterexample, or the counterexamples are easy to classify?

Given all of the tools we have about geometric classification of 3-manifolds, I expect someone would have a quick answer. I'm just not enough of an expert to make those arguments myself.