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Question: Is it provable in ZFC that every structure that is ordinal definable up to isomorphism has an ordinal definable isomorphic copy? If not, what are some counterexamples? All structures are set-sized.

In other words, if we define a structure up to isomorphism (as mathematical definitions often do), can we always provably define a specific example of an isomorphic structure?

A positive answer would likely generalize to a definable procedure for the following: Given a nonempty set $S$ of isomorphic structures, choose a structure, possibly outside of $S$, that is isomorphic to an element of $S$.

Here is an illustration of some of the subtleties. Assuming GCH, up to isomorphism, there is a unique $ω_2$-saturated elementary extension of second order arithmetic (equivalently, $(ℝ,ℕ,+,⋅,=)$) of cardinality $ω_2$. But defining a specific example of the extension seems problematic — every nonstandard integer in real analysis gives a nonprincipal ultrafilter on $ℕ$, and consistently with ZFC, no such ultrafilters are definable. Still, A definable nonstandard model of the reals unconditionally gives a definable countably saturated elementary extension.

We can also consider restricting the domain of the definable isomorphic copy:

  • If the copy must be in HOD, then there are counterexamples, such as the second order arithmetic (assuming $ℝ∉\text{HOD}$).
  • If the domain of the copy must consist of sets of ordinals, then the copy still has an ordinal definable (OD) linear ordering, so under appropriate assumptions, third order arithmetic would be a counterexample. I think there is even a symmetric generic extension of $V$ with an OD non-linearly-orderable countable set of countable sets of reals.
  • Requiring the domain of the copy to consist of sets of sets of ordinals does not affect existence of a definable copy.
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    $\begingroup$ What does it mean for a structure to be ordinal definable up to isomorphism? $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 24, 2021 at 1:27
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    $\begingroup$ @AlexKruckman It means there is a one-free-variable formula (in set theory) with ordinal parameters such that some structures satisfy the formula, and all structures satisfying the formula are isomorphic. Ordinal definability is used to avoid metamathematical issues in referring to first order definability. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 24, 2021 at 2:25
  • $\begingroup$ @AlexKruckman Alternatively we could simply ask for the entire isomorphism type of that structure to be an OD class (these are equivalent). Of course in general OD sets don't have OD elements (after all, $\mathbb{R}\setminus \mathsf{OD}$ is OD!). $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 25, 2021 at 1:33
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    $\begingroup$ This is undoubtedly overkill, but Todorcevic's "Walks on countable ordinals and selective ultrafilters" gives an example of an ultrafilter on $\omega$ that is definable up to Rudin-Keisler equivalence assuming PFA. So its isomorphism class is ordinal definable. Presumably this is provable from Woodin's axiom (*). But in the $\mathbb P_\text{max}$-extension of $L(\mathbb R)$, no specific one of these ultrafilters can be OD, given the homogeneity of the forcing and the lack of countably incomplete ultrafilters in the ground model. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 25, 2021 at 6:51
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    $\begingroup$ @GabeGoldberg Even homogeneous forcing adds new ordinal definable sets (just not in HOD), so it is unclear to me whether we get an OD set isomorphic to such an ultrafilter. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 25, 2021 at 16:54

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