Suppose the following relation is established:
$P\Bigl(A\cup B \cup C\cup D\Bigr) < P\Bigl(E\cup F\cup G\Bigr)$
based on boole's inequality, for each of the above probabilities we can have the following lower bounds:
$ P(A)+P(B)+P(C)+P(D)$ $ - P(A\cap B)- P(A\cap C)- P(A\cap D)- P(B\cap C)- P(B\cap D)- P(C\cap D) \le P\Bigl(A\cup B \cup C \cup D\Bigr) $
and
$ P(E)+P(F)+P(G)$ $ - P(E\cap F)- P(E\cap G)- P(F\cap G)\le P\Bigl(E\cup F\cup G\Bigr) $
Given these lower bounds, can we claim that the following relation holds?
$ P(A)+P(B)+P(C)+P(D)- P(A\cap B)- P(A\cap C)- P(A\cap D)- P(B\cap C)- P(B\cap D)- P(C\cap D)\le P(E)+P(F)+P(G)- P(E\cap F)- P(E\cap G)- P(F\cap G) $
Edit
Or can the opposite case be claimed? In other words if:
$ P(A)+P(B)+P(C)+P(D)- P(A\cap B)- P(A\cap C)- P(A\cap D)- P(B\cap C)- P(B\cap D)- P(C\cap D)\le P(E)+P(F)+P(G)- P(E\cap F)- P(E\cap G)- P(F\cap G) $
can we claim that:
$P\Bigl(A\cup B \cup C\cup D\Bigr) < P\Bigl(E\cup F\cup G\Bigr)$