Suppose I have an isometry $f$ of a Riemannian manifold $(M,g)$. Suppose further that $p$ and $q$ are fixed points of $f$. If $\gamma$ is a geodesic segment from $p$ to $q$, then so is $f(\gamma)$.
Let $\theta_p$ be the angle between $\gamma$ and $f(\gamma)$ at $p$ and $\theta_q$ be the angle between $\gamma$ and $f(\gamma)$ at $q$. Must we always get $\theta_p=\pm\theta_q$?
I’ve been trying to come up with a simple counterexample, but my inability to find one is starting to convince me that it might actually be true.