I was wondering if there were a proof of the fact that $$\mathbb{R}^3 \setminus \{p_1,\dots,p_n\} \: \text{is not homeomorphic to} \: \mathbb{R}^3$$ for every $n \geq 1$ that does not use cohomology or higher homotopy groups techniques (of course the fundamental group is allowed).

Thanks in advance

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