How do I show the above relation with Sturm-Liouville theory (assume the usual boundary conditions for the identity)? Here is what I have tried: if we start with $$ \big(xJ_a'(\ell x) \big)'+\left(\ell^2-\frac{a^2}{x}\right)J_a(\ell x)=0 $$ and $$ \big(xJ_a'(\ell' x) \big)'+\left(\ell'^2-\frac{a^2}{x}\right)J_a(\ell' x)=0 $$ and multiply the top expression by $xJ_a(\ell' x)$ and bottom by $xJ_a(\ell' x)$ and subtract the two equations, $$ x\big(xJ_a'(\ell x) \big)'-x\big(xJ_a'(\ell' x) \big)'+x(\ell^2-\ell'^2)J_a(\ell x)J_a(\ell' x)=0. $$ Then by rearrangement and integration over $[0, a]$ my answer is wrong. To be explicit, I get: $$ \int_0^axJ_m(\ell x)J_m(\ell'x)=\frac{a\big(J_m'(\ell a)J_m(\ell' a)-J_m'(\ell' a)J_m(\ell a)\big)}{\ell^2-\ell'^2} $$ which is just barely wrong--- the correct result is $$ \int_0^axJ_m(\ell x)J_m(\ell'x)=\frac{a\big(\ell J_m'(\ell a)J_m(\ell' a)-\ell'J_m'(\ell' a)J_m(\ell a)\big)}{\ell^2-\ell'^2} $$ which is zero (by the usual boundary conditions)
What am I doing wrong? Also-- is the reason we choose to multiply by $x\,\times$ the bessel function because of the "weight function" present in the Sturm–Liouville form of the Bessel function? Is this to ensure that our functions vanish at certain points?
Thank you!