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In section 2.6 of Linde's Probability in Banach Spaces: Stable and Infinitely Divisible Distributions the author is pointing out that in infinite-dimensional Banach spaces the convergence of characteristic functions does not imply the weak convergence of measures.

I wonder what exactly is going wrong.

Let $E$ be a normed vector space and $\mathcal M(E)$ denote the space of finite signed measures on $\mathcal B(E)$ equipped with the total variation norm $\left\|\;\cdot\;\right\|$.

We know that if $(\mu_t)_{t\in I}\subseteq\mathcal M(E)$ is a bounded and tight$^1$ net and $\mu\in\mathcal M(E)$ is tight with$^2$ $$\forall g\in\mathcal C:(\mu_t)_{t\in I}\to\mu g\tag1$$ for some point-separating subalgebra $\mathcal C$ of $C_b(E)$ with $1\in\mathcal C$, then $(\mu_t)_{t\in I}\to\mu$ weakly.

Now, if $(\mu_n)_{n\in\mathbb N}\subseteq\mathcal M(E)$ and $\mu\in\mathcal M(E)$, the convergence of the characteristic functions of $(\mu_n)_{n\in\mathbb N}$ to the characteristic function of $\mu$ precisely means that $(1)$ holds for $$\mathcal C:=\left\{e^{{\rm i}\varphi}:\varphi\in E'\right\}.$$

Since $E'$ is point-separating, $\mathcal C$ is point-separating as well.

So, assuming that $(1)$ holds for this $\mathcal C$, shouldn't we be able to immediately conclude $(2)$?

(I would really appreciate if someone would share a reference which further elaborates on this topic. Maybe from a more functional-analytic point-of-view.)


$^1$ i.e. for any $\varepsilon>0$, there is a compact $K\subseteq E$ with $\sup_{t\in I}|\mu_t|(K^c)<\varepsilon$, where $|\mu_t$ denotes the total variation of $\mu_t$.

$^2$ As usual, $\mu g:=\int g\:{\rm d}\mu$.

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    $\begingroup$ How would you deduce tightness from the convergence of characteristic functions? $\endgroup$
    – zhoraster
    Commented Dec 14, 2020 at 8:40
  • $\begingroup$ @zhoraster Yes, I see, the tightness is the crucial property. In finite dimensions, one is using that if the characteristic functions are equicontinuous at $0$ (which is equivalent to require that they converge to a function which is continuous at $0$), then the corresponding family of measures is tight. I guess this implication fails to hold in infinite dimensions? $\endgroup$
    – 0xbadf00d
    Commented Dec 15, 2020 at 8:59
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, the implication fails. $\endgroup$
    – zhoraster
    Commented Dec 15, 2020 at 13:50
  • $\begingroup$ No the implication does not fail because of "infinite dimension". It does because of the use of Banach spaces. If instead $E$ is a space of distributions like $\mathscr{D}'$ or $\mathscr{S}'$ then Levy's Continuity Theorem holds just like in finite dimensions. In other words tightness follows from pointwise convergence to a function that is continuous at zero. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 15, 2020 at 14:20
  • $\begingroup$ @AbdelmalekAbdesselam Thank you for your comment. Do you have a reference for that? $\endgroup$
    – 0xbadf00d
    Commented Dec 16, 2020 at 7:24

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