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Everything below is to be viewed in the Euclidean setting with $d$ dimensions and all measures are understood to be Borel measures.

The usual problem of Quantum Field Theory is to make sense of Feynman Path Integrals like

\begin{equation} \int \exp \left[- \frac{m^2}{2} \int \phi^2 + \frac{Z}{2} \int \phi \Delta \phi - \lambda \int \phi^4 \right] \mathrm{d} \phi \end{equation}

where the outer integral is supposed to run over some space of test functions. It is well-known that this does not really work. What one can do, however, is for $\lambda = 0$ to produce a Gaussian probability measure on e.g the space $\mathcal{S}'$ of tempered distributions. More generally this works for any continuous positive definite bilinear form on $\mathcal{S}$. Hence, for such theories we know what we are doing!

With $\lambda \neq 0$ this is no longer the case. In order to ensure the finiteness of expressions of the form $\int \phi^4$ we would like $\phi$ to live in $\mathcal{S}$. To this end, we pick two non-negative mollifiers $\chi, \xi \in \mathcal{D}$ with $\xi \left( 0 \right) = 1$. Furthermore, for any $\epsilon > 0$ and $\Lambda > 0$, define

\begin{aligned} \chi_\epsilon \left( x \right) &= \epsilon^{-d} \chi \left( \frac{x}{\epsilon} \right) \\ \xi_\Lambda \left( x \right) &= \xi \left( \frac{x}{\Lambda} \right) \\ \end{aligned}

and consider the continuous (? - it should certainly be Borel measurable) mapping

\begin{aligned} \mathcal{M} \left( \xi_\Lambda \right) \mathcal{C} \left( \chi_\epsilon \right) : \mathcal{S}' &\to \mathcal{S} \\ T &\mapsto \xi_\Lambda \cdot \left( \chi_\epsilon \ast T \right) \, . \end{aligned}

We may now take a Gaussian measure $\mu$ on $\mathcal{S}'$ corresponding to some bilinear theory and regularize it as $\left[ \mathcal{M} \left( \xi_\Lambda \right) \mathcal{C} \left( \chi_\epsilon \right) \right]_\ast \mu$ to a measure on $\mathcal{S}$. One can then define measures

\begin{equation} \nu_{\epsilon, \Lambda} = \exp \left[ -\lambda \int \phi^4 \right] \cdot \left[ \mathcal{M} \left( \xi_\Lambda \right) \mathcal{C} \left( \chi_\epsilon \right) \right]_\ast \mu \end{equation}

normalize them, push them to $\mathcal{S}'$ again and study their behaviour as $ \left( \epsilon, \Lambda \right) \to \left( 0, \infty \right)$. But this also does not work as it just produces the expected divergences coming from attempting to multiply distributions. Instead, one has to give up on keeping the model parameters $m, Z, \lambda$ constant and let them depend on $\epsilon$ and $\Lambda$ (i.e on cutoffs) instead. One might then hope that for some nice $\left( \epsilon, \Lambda \right)$-dependence a limit (or at least a cluster point) $\nu_{0, \infty}$ indeed exists.

From a Wilsonian point of view, we would however like to take $\nu_{0, \infty}$ and integrate out degrees of freedom that are cut off by $\epsilon > 0$ and $\Lambda > 0$. We may do this by fixing a family $\left( \alpha_{\epsilon, \Lambda} \right)_{\epsilon, \Lambda > 0}$ of Gaussian probability measures on $\mathcal{S}'$ satisfying the following properties for all $\epsilon, \delta, \Lambda, \kappa > 0$:

  • $\alpha_{\epsilon, \Lambda} \gg \nu_{0, \infty}$
  • $\alpha_{\epsilon, \Lambda} \ast \alpha_{\delta, \kappa} = \alpha_{\epsilon+\delta, \frac{\lambda \kappa}{\Lambda + \kappa}}$ (or someway similar)

Then we obtain a renormalization group equation

\begin{equation} \frac{\mathrm{d} \nu_{0, \infty}}{\mathrm{d} \alpha_{\epsilon, \Lambda}} \left( T \right) = \int_{\mathcal{S}'} \frac{\mathrm{d} \nu_{0, \infty}}{\mathrm{d} \alpha_{\epsilon + \delta, \frac{\Lambda \kappa}{\Lambda + \kappa}}} \left( T + R \right) \mathrm{d} \alpha_{\delta, \kappa} \left( R \right) \end{equation}

for all $\epsilon, \delta, \Lambda, \kappa > 0$.

Are these lines of thought correct? And presuming the existence of some nice QFT corresponding to $\nu_{0, \infty}$, can we always find such a family $\alpha_{\epsilon, \Lambda}$?

EDIT: I removed the other questions as they turned out not to make too much sense.

PS: The above is pretty much as far as my level of mathematics goes. Please try to not go too much further.

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    $\begingroup$ Everything makes sense up until "From a Wilsonian point of view...", except the mention of cylinder measures. You should use Borel probability measures on $\mathcal{S}'$, so you have a good notion of convergence for measures. More problematic: when you decompose $\nu_{0,\infty}$ as a convolution what you are doing is writing the final random distribution as a sum of a random high frequency part and a random low frequency part, where the two parts are independent. This independence holds for a Gaussian measure but has no reason to be true for the interacting QFT $\nu_{0,\infty}$. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 19, 2020 at 15:09
  • $\begingroup$ I just meant to emphasize that relevant Gaussian cylinder measures on $\mathcal{S}$ push forward to true Gausian measures on $\mathcal{S}'$. The independence you mention is also puzzling me and it is possible that I have misunderstood something. But isn't it the way we usually integrate out degrees of freedom? $\endgroup$
    – iolo
    Commented Nov 19, 2020 at 18:12
  • $\begingroup$ I should of course say that the cylinder set measures live on a Hilbert space completion of $\mathcal{S}$. $\endgroup$
    – iolo
    Commented Nov 19, 2020 at 18:41
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    $\begingroup$ It you split the Gaussian measure with only the Laplacian from the rest treated as interaction, and if you think of the degrees of freedom in a "microlocal way", i.e., as being indexed by phase space ($x$-space times frequency, or AdS) you will see the following. The Gaussian couples different positions but keeps different frequencies independent. By contrast, the interaction vertices couple different frequencies but do not couple different locations. So when you put all together, degrees of freedom are all coupled. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 20, 2020 at 12:53
  • $\begingroup$ This is not how on usually integrates out degrees of freedom. What reference are you following? $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 20, 2020 at 12:54

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