On page 7 in the article referred to below an axiom $D9$ is stated as follows: $$A\to B\to.\lnot(A \& \lnot B)~\\ (\text{equivalently: } (A\to\lnot A)\to\lnot A)$$
How may one prove the alleged equivalence, using the rest of the axioms and the inference rules:
D1: $\vdash A\to A$
D2: $\vdash((A\to B)\wedge(B\to C))\to(A\to C)$
D3: $\vdash(A\wedge B)\to A$
D4: $\vdash(A\wedge B)\to B$
D5: $\vdash((A\to B)\wedge (A\to C))\to(A\to (B\wedge C))$
D6: $\vdash(A\wedge(B\vee C))\to ((A\wedge B)\vee(A\vee C))$
D7: $\vdash\lnot\lnot A\to A$
D8: $ \vdash(A\to\lnot B)\to(B\to\lnot A)$
R1: $\vdash A \ \& \vdash (A\to B) \Rightarrow \ \vdash B$
R2: $\vdash A \ \& \vdash B \Rightarrow \ \vdash A\wedge B$
R3: $\vdash A\to B \ \& \ \vdash C\to D\ \Rightarrow \ \vdash(B\to C)\to (A\to D)$
Dialectical Logic, Classical Logic, and the Consistency of the World Author(s): Richard Routley and Robert K. Meyer Source: Studies in Soviet Thought , Jun., 1976, Vol. 16, No. 1/2 (Jun., 1976), pp. 1-25. Link (behind JSTOR paywall)