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Let $c,d\in\mathbb{N},\varepsilon>0$ and $p$ be a prime. Question: is it true that for all $\varepsilon>0$, if $p$ is sufficiently large depending on $c,d$ and $\varepsilon$, then for any varieties $X,Y\subseteq \mathbb{F}_{p}^{d}$ of "complexity" at most $c$, either $\vert X\cap Y\vert< \varepsilon\vert X\vert$ or $X\subseteq Y$?

Here we say that a variety $X\subseteq \mathbb{F}_{p}^{d}$ is of "complexity" at most $c$ if there exist $f_{1},\dots,f_{r}\in\mathbb{F}_{p}[x_{1},\dots,x_{d}]$ of degree at most $c$ for some $r\leq c$ such that $X$ is the set of $x\in \mathbb{F}_{p}^{d}$ with $f_{1}(x)=\dots=f_{r}(x)=0$.

For example, if $X=\mathbb{F}_{p}^{d}$ and $Y$ is generated by a single polynomial of degree $c$, then I know the answer to the question is positive. I think this question is related to counting the number of points in a variety, but I am not aware of any related references, as I am not an expert in algebraic geometry.

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    $\begingroup$ are points counted without multplicity? Also what does $X\subseteq Y$ mean? $\endgroup$
    – user164740
    Commented Oct 6, 2020 at 10:12
  • $\begingroup$ My guess: any regular function vanishing on Y vanishes on X. $\endgroup$
    – R.P.
    Commented Oct 6, 2020 at 10:36
  • $\begingroup$ But if $X$ is viewed as subset of $F_p^d$ this is not the variety inclusion. Probably one should at least use distinct notation for the $F_p$-defined variety $\mathbb{X}\subset \overline{F_p}^d$ and the $F_p$-points $X=\mathbb{X}\cap F_p^d$ (probably what is meant is $\mathbb{X}\subseteq\mathbb{Y}$. $\endgroup$
    – YCor
    Commented Oct 6, 2020 at 17:04
  • $\begingroup$ By $X\subseteq Y$ I mean that $X$ is a subset of $Y$ (in my understanding $X$ and $Y$ are both subsets of $\mathbb{F}_{p}^{d}$). $\endgroup$
    – Wenbo Sun
    Commented Oct 7, 2020 at 15:37

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This is true if $X$ is geometrically irreducible by the Lang-Weil bound, which gives us that the size of $|X \cap Y|$ is $(c(X \cap Y) + O_c(p^{-1/2})) p^{\dim (X \cap Y)|}$ where $c(X \cap Y)$ is the number of top-dimensional components of $X \cap Y$, which is bounded by some function of $c$. If we don't have $|X \cap Y| < \epsilon |X|$ then for sufficiently large $p$ it follows that $\dim (X \cap Y) = \dim X$, and then geometric irreducibility gives $X \cap Y = X$.

If $X$ is reducible then $X \cap Y$ can be a top-dimensional component of $X$ but not all of $X$. Between "geometrically irreducible" and "irreducible" it depends on what you mean by "$X \subseteq Y$."

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  • $\begingroup$ Thanks! By $X\subseteq Y$ I mean that $X$ is a subset of $Y$. $\endgroup$
    – Wenbo Sun
    Commented Oct 7, 2020 at 15:38

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