8
$\begingroup$

Given $b$ and $c$ with $b,c>1$, is it possible to construct a polynomial $p(x)$, whose degree is $n$ for all $c$ and $b$, such that:

  • $|p|$ is strictly increasing on $[1,c]$

  • and $|b \cdot p(c)| < |p(0)|$?

This might be satisfied by an interpolating polynomial, but how to actually construct it is beyond me.

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ It doesn't make sense to say that $n$ depends on neither $c$ nor $b$. If you were to word it as "Does there exist an $n$ such that for all $b,c$, there exist a polynomial of degree $n$ such that ..." Also, your first condition can almost be simplified to "the absolute value is strictly increasing". $\endgroup$ Dec 17, 2020 at 1:43
  • $\begingroup$ @Acccumulation Noted and changed accordingly. $\endgroup$
    – DUO Labs
    Dec 17, 2020 at 2:22

3 Answers 3

11
$\begingroup$

No, it's not possible to construct such a $p$ whose degree $n$ is bounded independently of $b$ and $c$. In fact, it's not possible even if we fix the value of $c$. I'll prove this for $c=2$ below, but the same argument works in general.

Suppose to the contrary that it were possible. Then for every $b>1$ we could choose a polynomial $p_b$ such that

  • $p_b$ has degree $n$;
  • $p_b$ takes non-negative values and is strictly increasing on $[1,2]$;
  • $b\cdot|p_b(2)|<|p_b(0)|=1$.

(We take a polynomial satisfying the desired conditions and multiply by an appropriate scalar.)

Key claim: The coefficients of a polynomial $p_b$ satisfying these three conditions are bounded independently of $b$. That is, there is a constant $B$ such that the absolute value of every coefficient of every polynomial $p_b$ is at most $B$.

Proof of claim: Fix any $n+1$ distinct real numbers $x_0,x_1,\dots,x_n$ between $1$ and $2$ inclusive, and for $i=0,1,\dots,n$ define the polynomial $f_i(x)$ by$$f_i(x)=\prod_{j\neq i}\frac{x-x_j}{x_i-x_j} \,,$$where the product is taken over all indices $i=0,1,\dots,n$ except $i=j$. Thus, $f_i$ is the unique degree $n$ polynomial such that $f_i(x_i)=1$ and $f_i(x_j)=0$ for $j\neq i$.

Now the theory of Lagrange interpolation says that for any polynomial $p$ of degree at most $n$, we have $$p(x) = \sum_{i=0}^np(x_i)f_i(x) \,.$$ But in our case, we know that we have $$|p_b(x_i)|\leq|p_b(2)|\leq b^{-1}\cdot|p(0)|<1$$ for every $b$, since $p_b$ is strictly increasing on $[1,2]$. Thus, the absolute value of every coefficient of every polynomial $p_b=\sum_{i=0}^np(x_i)f_i$ is at most $(n+1)B'$, where $B'$ is the largest absolute value of any coefficient of any of the $f_i$. This gives our bound independently of $b$, and proves the key claim.

Now by a compactness argument (a.k.a. the Bolzano--Weierstraß Theorem), our key claim implies that we may choose an increasing sequence of integers $b_1<b_2<\dots$ such that the polynomials $p_{b_i}$ converge coefficientwise to a polynomial $p$. What can we say about this limiting polynomial $p$? Well, by taking an appropriate limit of the above properties of the $p_{b_i}$, we find:

  • $p$ has degree $n$;
  • $p$ takes non-negative values and is weakly increasing on $[1,2]$;
  • $|p(0)|=1$; and
  • $|p(2)|\leq b_i^{-1}$ for every $i$.

Since the integers $b_i$ increase without bound, this final condition implies that actually $|p(2)|=0$. Since $p$ is non-negatively valued and weakly increasing on $[1,2]$, we find that $p$ actually has to be equal to $0$ on all of $[1,2]$. This implies that $p$ must be the zero polynomial. But this contradicts the assumption that $|p(0)|=1$.

$\endgroup$
0
25
$\begingroup$

Your first condition yields $$|p(c)|=|p(1)|+\int_{1}^c |p'(x)|dx:=\|p(x)\|.$$ All linear functionals on a finite-dimensional space are bounded, so if $\deg p\leqslant n$, we get $|p(0)|\leqslant C_n \|p(x)\|$ for certain $C_n$. Thus, if $b>C_n$, the second condition is not achievable.

$\endgroup$
2
  • 3
    $\begingroup$ I think this answer really gets to the point of what's going on here. I think it might be helpful to remark that both Fedor's solution and the one I gave revolve around similar ideas: using the first condition to bound the polynomial $p$, and deriving a contradiction by playing off this bound against the value of $p(0)$ using the second condition. However, in the proof I gave, these two steps are bound up together in the choosing to normalise everything such that $|p(0)|=1$, so I think Fedor's proof makes this underlying structure clearer. $\endgroup$ Sep 18, 2020 at 10:45
  • 2
    $\begingroup$ @AlexanderBetts Fedor is a genius. Your answer is good too. $\endgroup$
    – Nik Weaver
    Sep 18, 2020 at 15:35
2
$\begingroup$

Let me present a more explicit version of Fedor’s argument.

Choose distinct $x_0,\dots,x_n\in[1,c]$. By Lagrange’s interpolation formula, there exist constants $a_0,\dots,a_n$ such that $$ p(0)=\sum_{I=0}^n a_ip(x_i) $$ for each polynomial $p$ of degree not exceeding $n$. Therefore, $$ |p(0)|\leq \sum_{I=0}^n |a_i|\cdot |p(x_i)|\leq |p(c)|\cdot \sum_{I=0}^n |a_i|. $$

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.