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I am reading Hitchin's Self-Duality paper. In section 5 (page 85), he is trying to prove that $Dim H^1=12(g-1)$. In doing so, he defines an operator $d^*_2+d_1$, where $d^*_2$ and $d_1$ are given by

$d_1\dot{\psi}=(d_{A}\dot{\psi},[\Phi, \dot{\psi}])$

$d_2(\dot{A},\dot{\Phi})=(d_A\dot{A}+[\dot{\Phi},\Phi^*]+[\Phi,\dot{\Phi}^*], d^{\prime\prime}_{A}\dot{\Phi}+[\dot{A}^{0,1},\Phi])$

Then, he claims that $(d^*_2+d_1)(\psi_1,\psi_2)=0$ if and only if

$d^{\prime\prime}_{A}\psi_1 +[\Phi^*,\psi_2]=0$

$d^{\prime}_{A}\psi_2 +[\Phi,\psi_1]=0$

I am not able to derive this fact, and I spent quiet a lot of time on this, but unfortunately was not able to prove it. He says that he obtains this by calculating the explicit form of adjoint of $d_2$. I was not able to perform this calculation. I am new to the subject, and I would really appreciate any help, or ideas on how to prove this. Thanks!

P.S. I know that a co-differential is defined by $ d^{*}=(−1)^{n(k-1)+1}*d*:\Omega^{k}\to \Omega^{k-1}$ where $*$ in the definition is Hodge star, and this is the adjoint of exterior derivative with respect to $L^2$ norm. But how would one apply hodge operator in this setting, or even use $L^2$ to get $d^*$.

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The operator $$ d_2^*+d_1\colon \Omega^0(M,ad P\otimes\mathbb C)\oplus\Omega^0(M,ad P\otimes \mathbb C)\to\Omega^{0,1}(M,ad P\otimes \mathbb C)\oplus\Omega^{1,0}(M,ad P\otimes \mathbb C)$$ is just the sum of $d_1$ and $d_2^*,$ and it suffices to describe these two operators using the identification $$\Omega^{0,1}(M,ad P\otimes\mathbb C)=\Omega^1(M,ad P).$$ We decompose $\psi_1\in\Omega^0(M,ad P\otimes\mathbb C)$ into real and imaginary parts $$\psi_1=\omega+i \eta$$ for $\omega,\eta\in \Omega^0(M,ad P),$ and let $d_1$ act on the real part ($\omega$) and $d_2^*$ on the imaginary part ($\eta$).

Then, we have $$d_1(\psi_1,\psi_2)=((d_A\omega)^{0,1},[\Phi,\omega])=(d_A''\omega,[\Phi,\omega])$$ by definition. The dual of the operator $$d_A''\colon\Omega^{1,0}(M,ad P\otimes \mathbb C)\to \Omega^2(M,ad P\otimes \mathbb C); \; \psi_2\mapsto d_A''\psi_2$$ is by Serre duality the operator $$d_A''\colon \Omega^0(M,ad P\otimes \mathbb C)\to \Omega^{0,1}(M,ad P\otimes \mathbb C);\; \psi_2\mapsto d_A''\psi_2,$$ and using the hermitian metric and the fact that $d_A$ is unitary the adjoint operator gets identified with $$d_A'\colon \Omega^0(M,ad P\otimes \mathbb C)\to \Omega^{1,0}(M,ad P\otimes \mathbb C);\; \psi_2\mapsto d_A'\psi_2.$$ The adjoint of the operator $$\phi\in\Omega^2(M,ad P)\mapsto ([\phi,\Phi^*]+[\Phi,\phi^*])^{0,1}\in\Omega^{0,1}(M,ad P)$$ becomes $$\psi_2\mapsto -[\psi_2,\Phi^*]$$ ( taking the $i-$ part into account).

It remains to describe the operator $d_2^*$ acting on the imaginary part $i\eta$ of $\psi_1.$ As above, this becomes $$d_2^*((i\eta))=(id_A''\eta,i[\Phi,\eta]).$$ Putting together the pieces proves the claim.

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  • $\begingroup$ Hi Sebastian, thanks a lot for your answer! I just have a few questions regarding your answer. From what you wrote I think the adjoint of $d^{''}_A$ is $d^{'}_A$ and adjoint of $d^{'}_A$ is $d^{''}_A$ ? If so, the explicit form of action of $d_2$ on $\psi_2$ is $d_{2}\psi_2=(-[\psi_2,\Phi^*],d^{'}_{A}\psi_2)$. Using this and your equations for actions of $d_1$ on real part of $\psi_1$ and action of $d^*_2$ on imaginary part of $\psi_1$ I got equations 5.1. However, I'd like to know why $d_1$ does not act on $\psi_2$, also is there a reason why we decompose $\psi_1$, but not $\psi_2$. $\endgroup$
    – James
    Commented Aug 21, 2020 at 0:12
  • $\begingroup$ Sorry above I meant $d^*_2\psi_2=(-[\psi_2,\Phi^*],d^{'}_{A}\psi_2)$. $\endgroup$
    – James
    Commented Aug 22, 2020 at 0:06
  • $\begingroup$ $d_1$ does only act on sections of $ad P$ by its definition. In order to obtain a well-behaved complex linear operator Hitchin added $d_1$ and $d_2^*$ in a very specific way so that one can easily conclude that there is no kernel. $\endgroup$
    – Sebastian
    Commented Aug 22, 2020 at 12:39
  • $\begingroup$ Could you also elaborate a bit more on how you obtain the adjoint operator, $d^{'}_A$, using unitarity of $d_{A}$ and hermitian product. Thanks. $\endgroup$
    – James
    Commented Aug 23, 2020 at 15:30

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