I don't know how to prove that the definition
\begin{equation} \lambda_r = \frac{1}{r} \sum_{j=0}^{r-1} (-1)^j {r - 1 \choose j} E[X_{r-j:r}] \end{equation}
where
\begin{equation} E[X_{r:n}] = \frac{n!}{(r - 1)! \: (n - r)!} \int_{0}^{1} x(u) \: u^{r-1} \:(1-u)^{n-r} \: du \end{equation}
is consistent with
\begin{equation} \lambda_r = \int_{0}^{1} x(u) P^*_{r-1}(u) du \end{equation}
where
\begin{equation} P^*_r(u) = \sum_{k=0}^{r-1} p^*_{r-1,k} u^k, \end{equation}
and
\begin{equation} p^*_{r,k} = (-1)^{r-k} {r \choose k} {r + k \choose k} = \frac{(-1)^{r-k} (r + k)!}{(k!)^2 (r - k)!} \end{equation}
The indication that gives me is "Substituting the definition of the expectation of an order statistic in the first formula, expanding the binomials in $u$ and summing the coefficients of each power of $u$". The indication is from Hosking (1990) - https://doi.org/10.1111/j.2517-6161.1990.tb01775.x
Thanks