Let $p$ be a prime and let $A$ be an abelian normal $p$-subgroup of a finite group $G$. Hence, for any Sylow $p$-subgroup $H$ of $G$, it holds that $A$ is contained in $H$ and so $A$ is a normal subgroup of any Sylow $p$-subgroup of $G$. So now fix a Sylow $p$-subgroup $P$ of $G$.
How to show that the following two conditions are equivalent:
(1) There is a split exact sequence $1\to A \to G \to G/A \to 1$ .
(2) There is a split exact sequence $1\to A \to P \to P/A \to 1$ .
?
My try: I think I can prove (1) implies (2). Indeed, if (1) holds then there is a subgroup $B$ of $G$ such that $B\cong G/A$ and $G=BA$ and $B\cap A=1$. So then $P=P\cap (BA)=(P \cap B)A$ , and we moreover have $(P\cap B)\cap A \subseteq B \cap A=1$. Thus $P$ is a semidirect product of $A$ and $P\cap B\cong P/A$ . Thus the extension $1\to A \to P \to P/A \to 1$ splits. Is this correct ? And I have no idea how to prove (2) implies (1).
Please help.