This is probably a very easy question for experts in probability or measure theory.
I have a sequence of finite measures $\mu_{n}$ on a non-compact metric space $X$ such that $\mu_{n}$ converges to $\mu$ in the following sense: $$ \int_{X}fd\mu_{n} \to \int_{X}fd\mu \ \ \ \ \ \text{ for all f continuous with compact support} $$ I would like to say that $\mu_{n}(X)\to \mu(X)$.
I know this is false in general, but I have the additional condition that for every $\epsilon>0$ there is $n_{0}\in \mathbb{N}$ and $K\subset X$ compact such that $\mu_{n}(K^{c})\leq \epsilon$ for every $n\geq n_{0}$. This looks very similar to the definition of tight sequence (which guarantees the result I would like). Is this equivalent?
Additional assumptions: X is Polish and locally compact, precisely it is a closed surface with some finitely many points removed. All measures $\mu_{n}$ and $\mu$ are area measures of Riemannian metrics (with singularities at the points removed) on X.