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Let $(\Omega,\Sigma,\mathbb{P})$ be a complete probability space, $B\subseteq X$ be a non-empty Borel subset of a polish space $X$, $A$ be an uncountable indexing set, and $\{X_{\alpha,n}\}_{a \in A, n \in \mathbb{N}}$ a set of $X$-valued random elements with the following properties:

  • For every pair of distinct $\alpha,\alpha'\in A$ and every $\omega \in \Omega$ there does not exist $n,n'\in\mathbb{N}$ satisfying $$ X_{\alpha,n}(\omega) = X_{\alpha',n'}(\omega). $$
  • For every $\alpha \in A$, and every non-empty open subset $O'\subseteq X$, $0<\mathbb{P}\left(\bigcup_{n \in \mathbb{N}}\{X_{\alpha,n} \in O'\}\right)$.

Then can we conclude that $1=\mathbb{P}\left(\bigcup_{n \in \mathbb{N},\alpha \in A}\{X_{\alpha,n} \in B\}\right)$?

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  • $\begingroup$ consider any system $\Omega, P, X,\{X_{\alpha,n}\}$ like this, and then double it: $\Omega'=\Omega\sqcup \Omega$, $X'=X\sqcup X$ and so on (probability should be divided by 2). Take $B$ to be one of the two copies of $X$. Then your set in the end will be of measure 1/2. Am i missing something? $\endgroup$
    – erz
    Commented Jun 2, 2020 at 12:08
  • $\begingroup$ Actually, I was missing something. Namely that the second point should hold for all non-empty Borel subsets. It's a form of ergodicity. $\endgroup$
    – ABIM
    Commented Jun 2, 2020 at 12:46
  • $\begingroup$ isn't my comment still valid though? $\endgroup$
    – erz
    Commented Jun 2, 2020 at 12:56
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    $\begingroup$ Your second point can never be satisfied if $X$ is uncountable. Fix $\alpha$ once and for all. For every $x$, taking $B' = \{x\}$, you demand there exists $n$ such that $\mathbb{P}(X_{\alpha, n}=x) > 0$. By pigeonhole there must exist an $n$ such that $\mathbb{P}(X_{\alpha, n}=x) > 0$ for uncountably many $x$, which is impossible. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 2, 2020 at 13:10
  • $\begingroup$ Right, if I replace B by an open set then this resolves that issue. $\endgroup$
    – ABIM
    Commented Jun 2, 2020 at 13:41

2 Answers 2

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Here is a "very regular" counterexample:

Let $X=\mathbb R$, $A:=(0,1)=:B$, and $X_{a,n}:=Z+a$ for all $a\in A$ and $n\in \mathbb R$, where $Z\sim N(0,1)$. Then all your conditions hold. However, $$P\Big(\bigcup_{n\in\mathbb N,a\in A}\{X_{a,n}\in B\}\Big)=P(|Z|<1)\ne1.$$

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An attempt at a counterexample. Pick any $(\Omega,\Sigma,\mathbb{P})$. Pick $X = \{0,1\}^{\omega}$ with standard Borel structure, and $B = \{0^\omega\}$. Pick $A = \mathbb{R}$. Have each $X_{\alpha,n}$ be the constant function at $x_{\alpha,n}$ for all $\alpha,n$, and have $(x_{\alpha,n})_n$ enumerate a dense set in $X$ for each $\alpha$. It's easy to pick the sequences $(x_{\alpha,n})_n$ so they are all disjoint (note that each $X_{\alpha,n}$ is measurable trivially as it's constant, so it's just about cardinality), and you can pick them so that their values are not equal to $0^\omega$. Now $\mathbb{P}(\bigcup_{n \in \mathbb{N}} \{X_{\alpha, n} \in O'\}) = 1$ for all $\alpha$ and open $O'$ (if I'm interpreting it correctly). But no values are in $B$ so the other probability is zero.

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  • $\begingroup$ I didn't notice the comments. If $B$ is open you can do the same with two-valued random variables. Throw a global coin, and set $X_{\alpha,n} = x_{\alpha,n}$ if heads, $X_{\alpha,n} = 1^\omega$ if tails (for all $\alpha, n$ at once). If $B$ does not contain $1^\omega$ we're good. $\endgroup$
    – Ville Salo
    Commented Jun 2, 2020 at 14:57
  • $\begingroup$ Do you have an idea of a "regularity requirement" on $\{X_\alpha\}$ which evadues this type of construction? $\endgroup$
    – ABIM
    Commented Jun 2, 2020 at 15:13
  • $\begingroup$ I do not. It would be a bit surprising to me if there is a true statement even in the spirit of what you ask for; of course all the more interesting if you find one. $\endgroup$
    – Ville Salo
    Commented Jun 2, 2020 at 15:16

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