I was reading the solution to a functional inequality in an article when the author made the following remark without giving any proof: let $f(x): [0, \infty]\to[0, \infty]$ be locally integrable and such that $$\left(\int_0^t f(x)dx\right)^2 \ge \int_0^t f(x)^3dx$$ for all $t>0$. Then, the following statement is true:
$\int_0^t f(x)^\gamma dx \le \frac{1}{\gamma +1}\left(2\int_0^t f(x)dx\right)^{(\gamma + 1)/2}$ for all positive $t$ and $\gamma \in [1,3]$.
Again, there is no proof in the article, so I don't know if this is fairly easy to prove or very involved. One thing that might be worth mentioning is that the inequalities above become exact when $f(x)=x$. I am wondering if anyone has an idea or have seen these before.