I am reading the paper [Margulis, G. A.; Nevo, A.; Stein, E. M., Analogs of Wiener's ergodic theorems for semisimple Lie groups. II. Duke Math. J. 103 (2000), no. 2, 233–259] (MSN).
I want to understand the following argument. Let $(G,K)$ be a Gelfand pair. Then $M(G,K)$ i.e. the set of all bi-$K$-invariant measures on $G$ is a commutative Banach algebra. Suppose $\tau:G\to B(\mathcal H_\tau)$ be a strongly continuous unitary representation of $G.$ Denote $A_{\tau}:=\overline{\tau(M(G,K)}.$ Then spectrum of $A_\tau$ can be identified with all positive definite spherical functions on $G.$ How do you see that?
Secondly given a probability measure $\mu\in M(G,K)$ define $$\|\mu\|_T:=\sup\{|\phi_\lambda(\mu)|:\text{$\phi_\lambda$ positive-definite spherical function}\}.$$ Then $\|\mu\|_T\geq \tau(\mu).$
I do not understand the identification of spectrum of $A_\tau$ with positive-definite spherical functions. Secondly, what does one mean by $\phi_\lambda(\mu)$ since $\phi_\lambda$ is supposed to be a function on $G$?