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Let $(E,\mathcal{A},\mu)$ be a finite measure space and $\{f_n\}\subset L_{\mathbb{R}}^{1}$ such that: $$ \sum_{i=2}^{\infty}{\int_{E}{|f_n(t)-f_{n-1}(t)|d\mu(t)}}<+\infty $$ Can we say that : $$ \exists f_{\infty}\in L_{\mathbb{R}}^{1} \text{ such that: } f_n\to f_\infty\text{ a.e and in } L_{\mathbb{R}}^{1} $$

An idea please.

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  • $\begingroup$ Why $f_n\to f_\infty$ a.e ? $\endgroup$
    – Made
    Commented Apr 20, 2020 at 2:32

1 Answer 1

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Assuming that $L^1_{\mathbb R}$ denotes the space of all classes of $\mu$-equivalent functions $f\colon E\to\mathbb R$ with $\|f\|_1=\int_E|f|\,d\mu<\infty$, the answer is yes.

Indeed, we have $$\sum_2^\infty\|f_i-f_{i-1}\|_1<\infty.$$ So, for natural $n>m$ $$\|f_n-f_m\|_1\le\sum_{m+1}^n\|f_i-f_{i-1}\|_1\to0$$ as $m\to\infty$. Therefore and because $L^1_{\mathbb R}$ is complete (see e.g. this), for some $f_\infty\in L^1_{\mathbb R}$ we have $$\|f_n-f_\infty\|_1\to0$$ as $n\to\infty$.

Moreover, for natural $k$ $$h_k:=\sup_{n\ge k}|f_n-f_\infty|\le\sum_{n\ge k}|f_n-f_{n-1}|,$$ whence $$\|h_k\|_1\le\sum_{n\ge k}\|f_n-f_{n-1}\|_1\to0$$ as $k\to\infty$. So, $h_k\to0$ in measure $\mu$ as $k\to\infty$ -- that is (cf. e.g. Two equivalent definitions of almost sure convergence), $f_n-f_\infty\to0$ as $n\to\infty$ $\mu$-almost everywhere.

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    $\begingroup$ You could slightly simplify the end of the argument by noticing that $h_k$ are monotone in $k$. $\endgroup$
    – R W
    Commented Apr 20, 2020 at 3:15
  • $\begingroup$ @RW : Yes, of course. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 20, 2020 at 3:19
  • $\begingroup$ If you define $\phi(t)=\sum_n |f_{n}(t)-f_{n-1}(t)|$, $f_0=0$, then $\phi \in L^1$, hence $\phi<\infty$ a.e. and the series above converges absolutely a.e. Then $f_n=\sum_{k=1}^n (f_k-f_{k-1})$ converges a.e. and in $L^1$, since $|f_n| \le \phi$. It is more or less your proof, with some simplification. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 20, 2020 at 6:48
  • $\begingroup$ @GiorgioMetafune : Very nicely put! $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 20, 2020 at 7:05

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