Assuming that $L^1_{\mathbb R}$ denotes the space of all classes of $\mu$-equivalent functions $f\colon E\to\mathbb R$ with $\|f\|_1=\int_E|f|\,d\mu<\infty$, the answer is yes.
Indeed, we have
$$\sum_2^\infty\|f_i-f_{i-1}\|_1<\infty.$$
So, for natural $n>m$
$$\|f_n-f_m\|_1\le\sum_{m+1}^n\|f_i-f_{i-1}\|_1\to0$$
as $m\to\infty$. Therefore and because $L^1_{\mathbb R}$ is complete (see e.g. this), for some $f_\infty\in L^1_{\mathbb R}$ we have
$$\|f_n-f_\infty\|_1\to0$$
as $n\to\infty$.
Moreover, for natural $k$
$$h_k:=\sup_{n\ge k}|f_n-f_\infty|\le\sum_{n\ge k}|f_n-f_{n-1}|,$$
whence
$$\|h_k\|_1\le\sum_{n\ge k}\|f_n-f_{n-1}\|_1\to0$$
as $k\to\infty$. So, $h_k\to0$ in measure $\mu$ as $k\to\infty$ -- that is (cf. e.g. Two equivalent definitions of almost sure convergence), $f_n-f_\infty\to0$ as $n\to\infty$ $\mu$-almost everywhere.