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Let $p(x) \in \mathbb{Z}[x]$, such that $\deg (p) \ge 3$.
Can we always find $q(x) \in \mathbb{Z}[x]$, such that $\deg (q) < \deg(p)$ and $p(q(x))$ is reducible over $\mathbb{Q}[x]$?

Is there any algorithm to find $q(x)$?
Note that the degree of $q$ is less than degree of $p$.

I'm looking for a proof or any reference of this result.
Any help would be appreciated.

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    $\begingroup$ what happens for the example $p(x)=x^4+1$. Do you know whether there is such a $q$? $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 18, 2020 at 14:36
  • $\begingroup$ See ccms.or.kr/data/pdfpaper/jcms22_3/22_3_497.pdf $\endgroup$
    – user6976
    Commented Apr 18, 2020 at 14:47
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    $\begingroup$ @HenrikRüping Take $q(x) = x^3$. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 18, 2020 at 15:02

1 Answer 1

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Note: in this answer, I have inadvertently disregarded your requirement for $q$ to have integral coefficients. I do however prove that a $q$ with rational coefficients does exist, so I will just let this answer be on here for the moment.


To answer your main question, yes this is possible (and simple to prove). We may assume $p$ irreducible, otherwise there is nothing to prove. Let $\alpha$ be a zero of $p$ and consider $K = \mathbb{Q}(\alpha)$. Now the subset $S$ of $K$ consisting of elements $\beta$ such that $\mathbb{Q}(\beta)=K$ is equal to the complement in $K$ of a finite number of lower-dimensional $\mathbb{Q}$-vector spaces; in particular it is non-empty. Likewise, the subset $T$ of $K$ consisting of all elements that are linearly independent over $\mathbb{Q}$ with $\{1, \alpha\}$ is also a complement of a finite number (in this case just one) of lower-dimensional vector spaces (here we need the degree of $p$ to be at least $3$).

Now take any $\beta$ in $S \cap T$ (which is non-empty by what I wrote above): since $\mathbb{Q}(\beta)=K$, we have $\alpha=q(\beta)$ for some $q$ in $\mathbb{Q}[X]$ whose degree we can choose to be $< \deg (p)$ by subtracting the appropriate multiple of the minimal polynomial of $\beta$. Since $\beta$ is in $T$, we have that the degree of $q$ is $>1$. Then $\beta$ is a root of the polynomial $p \circ q$, so the latter must have a factor of degree $\deg (p)$, whereas its degree is $\deg(p)\deg(q)>\deg(p)$. Hence it is reducible.

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    $\begingroup$ When you write "by subtracting the appropriate multiple of $p$", do you mean "by subtracting the appropriate multiple of the minimal polynomial of $\beta$"? $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 18, 2020 at 16:11
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    $\begingroup$ Yes, I guess that's what I should have written... Thank you. Also I noticed after writing this that the question asked for $q$ to have integral coefficients, I don't know whether my method can easily give that. $\endgroup$
    – R.P.
    Commented Apr 18, 2020 at 16:13
  • $\begingroup$ Does it not follow that, if $p$ is irreducible and of odd degree, then $q(x)=x^2$ will do? $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 19, 2020 at 0:10
  • $\begingroup$ I don't think so, how would it follow? $\endgroup$
    – R.P.
    Commented Apr 19, 2020 at 7:25
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    $\begingroup$ Hmm. I was following the argument in the answer. If $\beta=\alpha^2$, then ${\bf Q}(\beta)={\bf Q}(\alpha)$, and $\{\,1,\alpha,\beta\,\}$ is linearly independent over ${\bf Q}$, so $\beta$ is a root of $p(x^2)$, so $p(x^2)$ must have a factor of degree equal to the degree of $p$ while it has degree twice that. What goes wrong? Ah! found it! It's $\sqrt{\alpha}$ that's a zero of $p(x^2)$. Sorry. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 19, 2020 at 7:44

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