Let consider the birational Cremona transformation $\sigma: \mathbb{P}^2 \dashrightarrow \mathbb{P}^2 $ defined by $$(X:Y:Z) \mapsto (X^{-1}:X^{-1}: Z^{-1})=(YZ:XZ:XY)$$.
In language of birational geometry the sections $YZ,XZ,XY \in H^0(\mathbb{P}^2, O_{\mathbb{P}^2}(2))$ induce it as
$$\sigma: \mathbb{P}^2 \backslash B = \mathbb{P}^2_{YZ} \cup \mathbb{P}^2_{XZ} \cup \mathbb{P}^2_{XY} \to \mathbb{P}^2$$.
with the base locus $B= \operatorname{Supp}V(YZ) \cap \operatorname{Supp}V(XZ) \cap \operatorname{Supp}V(XY) $ where $\sigma$ is not defined and $\mathbb{P}^2_{YZ}:= \{p \in \mathbb{P}^2 \ \vert \ (YZ)_p \neq 0 \}$ the non vanishing locus. Similar for $XZ$ and $XY$.
By construction $\mathbb{P}^2_{YZ}= \sigma^{-1}(D_+ (X)), \mathbb{P}^2_{XZ}= \sigma^{-1}(D_+ (Y)), \mathbb{P}^2_{XY}= \sigma^{-1}(D_+ (Z))$. Obviously $\sigma$ is not defined at points $(0:0:1), (0:1:0),(1:0:0) \in B$.
Up to now we introduced some notations; now the essential part of my question:
Let $V(F)=C \subset \mathbb{P}^2 $ be a curve defined by homogeoneous polynomial $F(X,Y,Z)= \sum_{i+j+k=n}a_{ijk}X^iY^jZ^k$ with $deg(F)=n$.
We assume that $C$ has at point $(0:0:1)$ multiplicity $d$, $(0:1:0)$ multiplicity $e$ and $(1:0:0)$ multiplicity $f$.
Recall, how multiplicity is defined: $(0:0:1) \in D_+(Z)$ and when we dehomogenize $F$ with respect $Z$ we get a new polynomial $f^Z$ in variables $x=X/Z,y=Y/Z$ that has structure
$$f^Z(x,y)= \sum_{i+j+k=n}a_{ijk}x^iy^j= \\ \sum_{i+j+k=n, i+j=d}a_{ijk}x^iy^j + \sum_{i+j+k=n, i+j >d}a_{ijk}x^iy^j =: f^Z_d +f^Z_{>d} $$
Recall again that by definition of multiplicity $d$ is minimal natural number with this property: for all $a_{ijk} \neq 0$ we have $i+j \ge d$. This is equivalent to say that $d$ is maximal with the property that the $d$-th power $(x,y)^d$ of the maxiaml ideal $(x,y) \subset k[x,y]$ contains $f^Z(x,y)$.
Analogously for multiplities $e$ and $f$ with respect to $(0:1:0)$ and $(1:0:0)$.
QUESTION: Why the pushforward of $C$ by $\sigma$ is the vanishing set
$$ \sigma_*C = (X^{-f}Y^{-e}Z^{-d}F(YZ,XZ, XY) =0) \ \ \ ?$$
By symmetry reasons it is clear that it suffice to show locally that this holds for restriction to affine open subscheme $D_+(Z)= \operatorname{Spec} \ k[X/Z,Y/Z] \subset \mathbb{P}^2$.
We know from construction that
$$\sigma_*C(D_+(Z))=C(\sigma^{-1}D_+(Z))= C(\mathbb{P}^2_{XY})= \\ C(D_+(XY))= C \vert _{D_+(X)}(D(y)) = k[y,z]_y/f^X(y,z).$$
Recall, $k[y,z]_y= k[y^{\pm 1},z]$ is the localization by $y$. If we now denote
$H:= X^{-f}Y^{-e}Z^{-d}F(YZ,XZ, XY)$ and $S:= V(H)$, then $H$ localized at $Z$ is $h^Z(x,y):=x^{-f}y^{-e} F(y,x, xy)$ and thus
$$S(D_+(Z))= k[x,y]/h^Z(x,y).$$
And we have to verify $k[y,z]_y/f^X(y,z)=k[x,y]/h^Z(x,y)$.
Although up to now I only used definitions (in correct way?) the equation I have to verify seems not to make any sense. I think that somewhere I have already done a hard error but I can't find it. Can anybody help? Is there an easier way to verify the claim in the question?
Thanks for your help.