Define the mean value for function $f$ as $\lim \limits_{x \to \infty} \frac{1}{x} \sum \limits_{n \leq x} f(n)$ if the limit exists denoted as $M_f$
Define the logarithmic value for function $f$ as $\lim \limits_{x \to \infty} \frac{1}{\ln x} \sum \limits_{n \leq x} \frac{f(n)}{n}$ if the limit exists denoted as $L_f$
Its easy to prove that if $M_f$ exist then so does $L_f$ and they are equal, but the other way around is not true in general.
Let $F(s) = \sum \limits_{n=1}^{\infty} f(n) n^{-s}$ for all $s>1$, and we are given that in addition $F(s)$ satisfy $F(s) = \frac{A}{s-1} +o(\frac{1}{s-1})$ for $s \to 1^{+}$ and $A$ is a constant.
In addition assume that $L_f = A$, and use this to prove that $M_f= A$ ?
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