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In Munkres Theorem 20.4 it is shown that the (relative) uniform topology induced by: $$ d(x,y)\triangleq \sup_{n \in \mathbb{N}} d(x_n,y_n) $$ is strictly finer than the product topology on $\prod_{n \in \mathbb{N}} \mathbb{R}$ and its relative topology on $\ell^{\infty}(\mathbb{R})$.

Now, for each positive integer $n$, let $K_k\triangleq \left\{x \in \prod_{n \in \mathbb{N}} \mathbb{R}:\, |x_n|\leq k \right\}$. Clearly $K_k \subseteq \ell^{\infty}(\mathbb{R})\subseteq \prod_{n \in \mathbb{N}} \mathbb{R}$ and $K_k \subseteq K_{k+1}$ defines an inductive system in the category Top.

How does the inductive limit topology on $\bigcup_{k \in \mathbb{N}} K_k$ compare to (restriction of) the uniform topology thereon? My intuition tells me that they coincide, is this correct?

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    $\begingroup$ In the definition of $K_n$, what are $t$ and $\|\cdot\|$? Does it mean something like $\forall t \in \mathbb N, \lvert x_t\rvert \le n$, where $\lvert\cdot\rvert$ is the usual absolute value? (Also, you currently ask for the inductive-limit topology on $\bigcup_{n \in \mathbb N}$; I guess you mean $\bigcup_{n \in \mathbb N} K_n$?) $\endgroup$
    – LSpice
    Commented Mar 27, 2020 at 13:00
  • $\begingroup$ Exactly, thanks for pointing that out. $\endgroup$
    – ABIM
    Commented Mar 27, 2020 at 13:06
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    $\begingroup$ It is not clear to me what topology you are considering on $K_k$, the norm or product topology. If the former, your conjecture is correct, if the latter you get the so-called weak $\ast$-topology as the dual of $\ell^1$.(I deleted my previous comment since I then clocked on this ambivalence) $\endgroup$
    – user131781
    Commented Mar 27, 2020 at 13:40
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    $\begingroup$ The quickest way is via Google—“weak topology” will give you an article on Wikipedia which starts with the weak topology on a Banach space, then goes on to the weak $\ast$-topology on a dual Banach space. Any text on Banach spaces will discuss this (sorry, I don’t have access to a library to give a more precise reference for the obvious reason) $\endgroup$
    – user131781
    Commented Mar 27, 2020 at 13:49
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    $\begingroup$ Sorry, I messed up my first comment when I deleted and repaced it. As was correctly stated there, the topology you get is not the weak $\ast$-topology but the finest one on the whole space which agrees with the latter on bounded sets—commonly known as the bounded weak $\ast$-topology. Sorry for confusing the issue—mea culpa. This is a complete lc topology and its convergent sequences are the norm bounded ones which converge in the product topology. You could check out the Banach-Steinhaus theorem. $\endgroup$
    – user131781
    Commented Mar 27, 2020 at 18:46

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As user131781 noted the correct answer depends on the topology of $K_n$. If it is the norm topology the result is a special case of the following more general case: Let $K$ be a metric space with topology $\cal{O}$ and $K_n$, $n \in \mathbb{N}$ a sequence of subsets with $K_n \subset K^o_{n+1}$ ($X^0$ the interior of $X$) and with $K_n \uparrow K$. Let $\cal{O}_1$ be the inductive topology on $K$ induced by the injections $i_n \colon K_n \to K$. By definition $\cal{O}_1$ is finer than $\cal{O}$. But since $(K,\cal{O})$ is metrizable to show that $\cal{O}$ is finer than $\cal{O}_1$ it suffices to show that each convergent sequence $x_n \to x$ w.r.t. $\cal {O}$ converges w.r.t. $\cal{O}_1$. But this is a consequnce of the assumption $K_n \subset K^o_{n+1}$.

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