I have a possibly elementary question. Let $\mathcal{M}$ be a manifold with $\text{dim} \; \mathcal{M} = 2$. Let $U \subseteq \mathcal{M}$ be homeomorphic to $\overline{\mathcal{B}(0,1)}$, and let $\partial U = U \backslash \text{int} \; U$. Construct the topological space $\mathcal{N}$ by removing $\text{int} \; U$ and then identifying all points on $\partial U$. Is $\mathcal{N}$ homeomorphic to $\mathcal{M}$? Can someone provide a proof if this is true, or provide a counterexample?
The issue in my mind is that I am facing complications with is the fact that $\partial U$ is only homeomorphic to $S^{1}$, and not necessarily a $C^1$ curve (or even piecewise $C^1$). Note that it is well known that all 2 manifolds admit smooth structures, so it makes sense to talk about differentiability.