The following question was first posted on Math.Stackexchange.com but unfortunately I didn’t get any answer. This might be obvious for many researchers but I can’t see how this is so, thus I am asking it here:
Let $V$ be a closed subspace of $B(H,K)$ such that $xy^*z \in V$ for all $x,y,z \in V$. Let $I$ be an ideal $(IV^*V+VV^*I \subset I)$ of $V$. Let $C(I)$ denotes the $C^{\ast}$-algebra generated by $II^{\ast}$. In a paper the following inclusion is stated without proof:
$VI^{\ast} \subset C(I)$
I don’t see how this can be true, since $C(I)$ is generated by $II^{\ast}$ therefore how could $VI^*$ be included inside $C(I)$?