I'm currently reading this paper describing a numerical scheme for the approximating optimal policy of a stochastic control problem. However, I run into a confusion directly on the first page where there seems to be a "common abuse of notation".
The author write the stochastic control problem determined by: $$ \begin{aligned} v(t,x)= & sup_{a \in \mathcal{A}} \, \mathbb{E}^{t,x}\left[ \int_t^T f(X_s^a,a_s)ds + g(X_T^a) \right]\qquad 0\leq t< T \\ dX_t^a =& b(X_s^a,a_s)dt + \sigma(X_s^a,a_s)dW_s, \end{aligned} $$ where $\mathscr{A}$ a non-empty set of $A\subseteq \mathbb{R}^q$-valued controls.
They state that the value function for this problem satisfies the HJB equation written: $$ \begin{aligned} \partial_t v + \sup_{a \in A}\left[ b(x,a).D_xv + \frac1{2}\operatorname{tr}(\sigma\sigma^T(x,a)D_x^2v) + f(x,a,v,\sigma^T(x,a).D_xv) \right] = & 0 \qquad (t,x)\in [0,T)\times \mathbb{R}^d\\ v(T,x)= & g(x) \qquad x \in \mathbb{R}^d. \end{aligned} $$
Problem: My problem is that $f$ is used to denote two different functions? So how is f defined in the HJB equation (given that I know how to define it in the control problem) then?