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This is on some confusion on the proof of lemma $1.6$ of the paper titled Special divisors on curves on a $K3$ surface(For convenience I am attaching the link here: https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/BF01389083)

The statement of the lemma is as follows : If $E$ is a vector bundle on a $K3$ surface $X$ which is generated away from finitely many points, then there exists a globally generated vector bundle $F$ on $X$ with $det(F) =det(E)$,$h^{0}(F) \geq h^{0}(E)$ and $h^{i}(F) = h^{i}(E)$ for $i \geq 1$.

Sketch of the proof : At the beginning they worked under the hypothesis $H^{0}(E^*)=0$.We then automatically have a short exact sequence of the following form:

$0 \to V \to H^{0}(E) \otimes \mathcal O_X \to E \to S_E \to 0$....$(1)$,

where $V$ and $S_E$ are respectively kernel and cokernel of the evaluation map.

Confusion $1$ : After taking sheaf Hom I got the the short exact sequence $0 \to E^{*} \to H^{0}(E)^* \otimes \mathcal O_X \to V^{*} \to \mathcal {E}xt^1(S_E, \mathcal O_X) \to 0$.....$(2)$. But in the paper they got the following exact sequence : $0 \to E^{*} \to H^{0}(E)^* \otimes \mathcal O_X \to V^{*} \to Ext^2(S_E, \mathcal O_X) \to 0$...$(3)$.But, I don't see how $Ext^2(S_E, \mathcal O_X)$ is there in the S.E.S $(3)$.Is there a way to connect the terms $\mathcal{E}xt^1(S_E,\mathcal O_X)$and $Ext^2(S_E, \mathcal O_X)$?

At this point starting from S.E.S $(2)$ looking at this long cohomology sequence I got,$0 \to H^{0}(E)^* \to H^{0}(V^*) \to H^{0}(R_E) \to 0$, where $R_E := \mathcal {E}xt^1(S_E, \mathcal O_X)$.

Then in the paper it's stated that we may thus choose a subspace $W \subset H^{0}(V^*)$ such that $0 \to H^{0}(E)^* \to W \to H^{0}(R_E) \to 0$ and $W$ generates $V^*$ as a vector bundle (i.e the evaluation map $ W \otimes \mathcal O_X \to V^*$ is surjective)

Doubt 1: I can see only two candidates for $W$ namely $ H^{0}(E)^* ,H^{0}(V^*) $.But in any case the evaluation maps are evidently not surjective. So what ensures existence of such a $W$?

Any help from anyone is welcome

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  • $\begingroup$ How did you get your `short' (wrong terminology) exact sequence in conlcusion1? Split (1) into short exact sequences (only three terms, not four) and work from there. $\endgroup$
    – Mohan
    Oct 23, 2019 at 18:28
  • $\begingroup$ @Mohan,If we denote the evaluation map by $f$,then we can have a short exact sequence from $(1)$ as $0 \to V \to H^{0}(E) \otimes \mathcal O_X \to Imf \to 0$ which gives us $ 0 \to \mathcal{H}om(Imf , \mathcal O_X) \to (H^{0}(E))^* \otimes \mathcal O_X \to V^* \to \mathcal {E}xt^1(Imf, \mathcal O_X) \to 0$...(A) .Also we can have another short exact sequence from $(1)$ as $ 0 \to (H^{0}(E) \otimes \mathcal O_X )/V \to E \to S_E \to 0$ which gives us $0 \to \mathcal{H}om((H^{0}(E) \otimes \mathcal O_X) /V, \mathcal O_X) \to \mathcal {E}xt^1(S_E, \mathcal O_X) \to 0$...(B). How (A) & (B) ->2 $\endgroup$
    – HARRY
    Oct 24, 2019 at 14:11
  • $\begingroup$ I do not understand the last line, where did $E^*$ on the left go? Also, why use two expressions, $\mathrm{Im} f$ and $H^0(E)\otimes\mathcal{O}_X/V$ for the same thing? Can you go a little further to see that $\mathcal{E}xt^1(\mathrm{Im} f,\mathcal{O_X})=\mathcal{E}xt^2(S_E,\mathcal{O}_X)$? $\endgroup$
    – Mohan
    Oct 24, 2019 at 15:08
  • $\begingroup$ @Mohan,yes I forgot to write $E^*$ in the last exact sequence $\endgroup$
    – HARRY
    Oct 24, 2019 at 15:35
  • $\begingroup$ Can we say that $\mathcal {E}xt^1(S_E, \mathcal O_X) =0$ because $1 < codim(S_E) =2$,then from short exact sequence (B) we have $E^* \cong \mathcal{H}om(Imf , \mathcal O_X)$? $\endgroup$
    – HARRY
    Oct 24, 2019 at 16:30

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