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Suppose we have ordered numbers $a_1 < a_2 < \dots < a_n$. Now we sample $k$ of them with equal probability and with replacement and compute the median of these and call it $m$. (Let us assume that $k$ is odd for the sake of simplicity.) What is the probability the $m = a_i$ for each $i$?

I want to know this to construct the probability mass function for the median of $k$ random draws from a sample of $n$ numbers.

(Already asked here but does not seem to be simple.)

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    $\begingroup$ I think this belongs on MathStackExchange, and I answered it there. $\endgroup$
    – user44143
    Commented May 7, 2019 at 11:53
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks for answering on MathStackExchange (find link in question)! $\endgroup$
    – janlo
    Commented May 8, 2019 at 8:55

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