I'm trying to understand Bourgain's proof of Proposition 1.10 on page 304-307 in On $\Lambda(p)$-subsets of squares which states
Given $p>4$, we have the estimate \begin{align} \left\|\sum_{n=1}^N a_ne^{in^2t} \right\|_{L^p(\mathbb{T})} \lesssim N^{\frac{1}{2}-\frac{2}{p}}\left( \sum^N_{n=1}|a_n|^2\right)^{\frac{1}{2}}. \end{align}
More precisely, I am trying to understand the following on page 305
Let $t_1, \ldots, t_R$ be $1/N^2$-separated points in $[0, 1]$ satisfying \begin{align} \left|\sum^N_1 a_n e^{2\pi i n^2t_r} \right|>\delta N^{\frac{1}{2}} \ \ (1\leq r \leq R). \ \ \ \ \ \ (4.11) \end{align}
Here we already assumed $\sum |a_n|^2 \leq 1$ and $0<\delta<1$. Then the paper continues
Our purpose is to estimate $R$. By linearization, (4.11) yields \begin{align} \sum_{1\leq r, r'\leq R}\left|\sum^N_1 \exp[2\pi i n^2(t_r-t_{r'})] \right|>\delta^2NR^2. \ \ \ \ \ (4.12) \end{align}
Here I have a potentially very elementary question.
- What does he mean by linearization in this context, that is, how did he deduced (4.12) from (4.11)?