This question was posted in MSE. It got many upvotes but no answer hence posting it in MO.
A number is either prime or composite, hence primality is a binary concept. Instead I wanted to put a value of primality to every number using some function $f$ such that $f(n) = 1$ iff $n$ is a prime otherwise, $0 < f(n) < 1$ and as the number divisors of $n$ increases, $f(n)$ decreases on average. Thus $f(n)$ is a measure of the degree of primeness of $n$ where 1 is a perfect prime and 0 is a hypothetical perfect composite. Hence $\frac{1}{N}\sum_{r \le N} f(r)$ can be interpreted as a the average primeness of the first $N$ integers.
After trying several definitions and going through the ones in literature, I came up with:
Define $f(n) = \dfrac{2s_n}{n-1}$ for $n \ge 2$, where $s_n$ is the standard deviation of the divisors of $n$.
One reason for using standard deviation was that I was already studying the distribution of the divisors of a number.
Question 1: Does the average primeness tend to zero? i.e. does the following hold?
$$ \lim_{N \to \infty} \frac{1}{N}\sum_{r = 2}^N f(r) = 0 $$
Question 2: Is $f(n)$ injective over composites? i.e., do there exist composites $3 < m < n$ such that $f(m) = f(n)$?
My progress
- $f(4.35\times 10^8) \approx 0.5919$ and decreasing so the limit if it exists must be between 0 and 0.5919.
- For $2 \le i \le n$, computed data shows that the minimum value of $f(i)$ occurs at the largest highly composite number $\le n$.
Note: Here standard deviation of $x_1, x_2, \ldots , x_n$ is defined as $\sqrt \frac{\sum_{i=1}^{n} (x-x_i)^2}{n}$. Also notice that even if we define standard deviation as $\sqrt \frac{\sum_{i=1}^{n} (x-x_i)^2}{n-1}$ our questions remain unaffected because in this case in the definition of $f$, we will be multiplying with $\sqrt 2$ instead of $2$ to normalize $f$ in the interval $(0,1)$.