For a Binomial$(n,p)$ random variable $X$, I'm interested in showing that $$ \frac{P(X>c)}{P(X>c1)}=1o(1) $$ uniformly in $c\in\mathcal{R}$, where $\mathcal{R}$ is the range of interest (Note that $c$ will vary with $n$). The $o(1)$ rate is meant as $n\to\infty$.
Now I have the following results (Note that $q=1p$):
Result 1 For $0\leq k\leq n$, set $$ P(X=k)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi pq n}}\exp\left(\frac{(knp)^2}{2npq} \right)(1+\delta_n(k)) $$ Then for every positive real sequence $\{c_n\}$ approaching zero, $$ \lim_{n\to\infty}\max_{k:knp<c_n n^{2/3}}\delta_n(k)=0 $$

Result 2 Suppose that $\{a_n\}$ is a sequence of real numbers such that $\lim_{n\to\infty}a_n=+\infty$ and $\lim_{n\to\infty}a_n n^{1/6}=0$. Then $$ P(X\geq np+a_n\sqrt{npq})\sim \frac{1}{a_n\sqrt{2\pi}}\exp(a_n^2/2) $$ where "$\sim$" means asymptotic equivalence.
Now, \begin{align} \frac{P(X>c)}{P(X>c1)}&=\frac{P(X>c1)P(X=c)}{P(X>c1)}\\ &=1\frac{P(X=c)}{P(X\geq c)} \end{align}
EDIT From the the above results, the range $\mathcal{R}$ can be at least $np$ and at most $np+c_{n}\sqrt{npq}$, for some $c_n=o(n^{1/6})$. I can certainly show that at the extremes of the range, the ratio is $o(1)$. However, I think I also need to show that either a) for some value $\tilde{c}$ in between the extremes, $P(X=\tilde{c})/P(X\geq \tilde{c})=o(1)$ or that b) the ratio itself is monotonic (based on some numerical experiments, I think it is increasing in $c$). I've tried to go through the route of b) and show that $P(X=c)/P(X\geq c)\leq P(X=c+1)/P(X\geq c+1)$, but can't seem to get the math to work out.