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If $X$ is a spectrum with trivial (integer-valued) homology groups, does it have to be weakly-equivalent to a point?

This is easy to prove for connective spectrum, as a Hurewitz-type argument is then possible, but what about the general case?

Furthermore, if this is not the case, how should I think of the functor $L_{H\mathbb{Z}}$ (Bousfield-localization at the spectrum EM spectrum $H\mathbb{Z}$)?

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If $K(n)$ is the $n$-th Morava K-theory for $n>0$, then $K(n)\otimes H\mathbb{Z}=0$ because, via the 2 complex orientations of $K(n)\otimes H\mathbb{Z}$, there are two formal groups over the ring $\pi_*(K(n)\otimes H\mathbb{Z})$ and an isomorphism between them. But one has height 0 (additive formal group from $H\mathbb{Z}$) and the other has height $n>0$ (coming from $K(n)$). This is impossible unless $\pi_*(K(n)\otimes H\mathbb{Z})=0$. But of course $K(n)\neq0$.

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  • $\begingroup$ That's what I thought, thanks for the answer. Can you say something about the functor $L_{H\mathbb{Z}}$? $\endgroup$
    – user09127
    Commented Jan 4, 2019 at 9:45

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