This is what I read:

One can test if there exist integers x and y such that

$c\cdot x + j = d \cdot y + k$,

if $(k-j)\mod(\gcd(c,d)) = 0$

How can one see that?

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PS: I understand what $\gcd $ and mod operations do.

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PSS: Source: 1st frame of slide 6 within http://www.cs.arizona.edu/~collberg/Teaching/553/2011/Handouts/Handout-33.pdf

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closed as off-topic by Robert Israel, Andreas Blass, Joe Silverman, David Handelman, RP_ Dec 7 at 15:52

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  • So $c,d,k,j$ and $I$ are all integers? Or is $I$ some variable? Furthermore, are you sure that $d$ should be both an exponent on the left and a factor on the right, or are these two different letters? – Dirk Liebhold Dec 7 at 13:09
  • let me rewrite it! the d in lhs and in the rhs are not the same.. – beteraba Dec 7 at 13:10
  • 1
    This question is more for here math.stackexchange.com – greedoid Dec 7 at 13:12
  • thank you, i will ask there then. – beteraba Dec 7 at 13:13