The following question seems simple but I am not sure how to handle it correctly because of the integral with respect to a measure. I would be very thankful for any reply.Cheers!
Knowing that $$f(\psi(t)/t,1/t)=\int_0^\infty exp(\theta \psi(t)/t-\theta^2/2t)F(d\theta )=a$$ where a and $\theta $ are positive real constants,F is a positive $\sigma-finite$ measure and $\psi$ an initinity often continuously differentiable function of time, how can we deduce that $\psi(t)/t$ is monotone decreasing?