Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space, and suppose $S\subseteq X$ is a finite subset in which all pairwise distances are distinct (formal definition here).

If $x\in S$ and $k$ is a non-negative integer with $k<|S|$, we define $S_k(x)\subseteq S$ to be the set of the $k$ nearest members of $S$ to $x$, other than $x$ itself. We define a graph $G(k,S)$ by setting $V(G(k,S)) = S$, and $$E(G(k,S)) = \big\{\{x,y\}: x\neq y \in S \text{ and } y\in S_k(x) \text{ and }x\in S_k(y)\big\}.$$ So the points $x,y$ are connected by an edg if and only if $y$ belongs to the $k$ nearest points of $x$, and vice versa.

We say that a metric space $(X,d)$ is *graph-universal* if for every finite graph $G$ there is $S\subseteq X$ with pairwise distinct distances, and a non-negative integer $k<|S|$ such that $G\cong G(k,S)$. For example, $\mathbb{R}$ with the Euclidean distance is not graph-universal as we cannot find a set $S$ of $4$ real points and $k<4$ such that $C_4 \cong G(k, S)$.

** Question.** If $\{0,1\}^{<\omega}$ denotes the set of functions $f:\omega\to\{0,1\}$ that are eventually $0$, and endow it with the Hamming distance $d_H$, is $(\{0,1\}^{<\omega}, d_H)$ graph-universal?