The Pontryagin square, maps $x \in H^2({B}^2\mathbb{Z}_2,\mathbb{Z}_2)$ to $ \mathcal{P}(x) \in H^4({B}^2\mathbb{Z}_2,\mathbb{Z}_4)$. Precisely, $$ \mathcal{P}(x)= x \cup x+ x \cup_1 2 Sq^1 x. $$ The $\cup_1$ is a higher cup product. The $Sq^1 x= x \cup_1 x$.
If I only consider the $\mathbb{Z}_2$ normal subclass as $$H^4({B}^2\mathbb{Z}_2,\mathbb{Z}_2) \subset H^4({B}^2\mathbb{Z}_2,\mathbb{Z}_4),$$ then the $\mathbb{Z}_2$ generator I believe can be written as $$ x \cup x =x \cup (w_2(M)+w_1(M)^2) $$
If I consider the full $\mathbb{Z}_4$ class as $H^4({B}^2\mathbb{Z}_2,\mathbb{Z}_4),$ then the $\mathbb{Z}_4$ generator, can it be written as
$$ \mathcal{P}(x)= x \cup (w_2(M)+w_1(M)^2) + x \cup_1 2 Sq^1 x? $$ in general?
Therefore, on the spin-manifold $w_2(M)=w_1(M)=0$, or the Pin$^-$-manifold, the $ (w_2(M)+w_1(M)^2)=0$, so the first term disappear completely?
So on the spin-manifold or the Pin$^-$-manifold, the $\mathbb{Z}_4$ class of $ \mathcal{P}(x)$ is reduced to a $\mathbb{Z}_2$ subclass generated by
$$ x \cup_1 Sq^1 x= \frac{1}{2}(\mathcal{P}(x) -x^2) ? $$ Is this precise?