9
$\begingroup$

Let $A\in\mathbb{R}^{n\times n}$ be a matrix having eigenvalues with strictly negative real part (in other words, $A$ is supposed to be Hurwitz stable). Let $\mathrm{tr}(\cdot)$ denote the trace operator and $I$ the identity matrix. Let $>$ be the standard partial order in the cone of positive definite matrices.

Consider the following optimization problem $$\tag{$\star$}\label{prob} m(A) :=\sup_{\substack{X\in\mathbb{R}^{n\times n}\\ X>0,\ \mathrm{tr}(X)=1}} \mathrm{tr}\left(X(I+P)^{-1}\right), $$ where $P$ is the (unique) positive definite solution of the following Lyapunov equation $AP+PA^\top=-X$.

My question. Suppose that $A$ is upper triangular, does the following inequality $$ m(A)\ge \frac{2\,\mathrm{tr}\,A}{2\,\mathrm{tr}\,A-1} $$ always hold true?

A special case. Notice that if $A+A^\top<0$, then the answer is in the affirmative. To see this, just pick $P^\star= -\frac{1}{2\mathrm{tr}(A)}I$ and observe that $X^\star=-(AP^\star+P^\star A^\top)$ is positive definite and satisfies $\mathrm{tr}(X^\star)=1$.


Numerical evidences. Quite surprisingly, after runnning an extensive number of numerical simulations, it seems that the answer is in the affirmative for any (upper triangular Hurwitz stable) $A$. More precisely it seems that (modulo numerical errors of magnitude $\sim 10^{-6}$) the conjectured inequality actually holds with equality, that is $$ m(A) = \frac{2\,\mathrm{tr}\,A}{2\,\mathrm{tr}\,A-1}. $$

However, this fact does not seem trivial to prove (I spent quite some time thinking about this, but I didn't manage to prove it); so any help in clarifying this conjecture is greatly appreciated. Thanks!


An (perhaps useful?) equivalent formulation. By plugging $X=-AP-PA^\top$ into the trace functional in \eqref{prob}, the latter can be rewritten as \begin{align}\tag{$\star\star$} m(A) &=\sup_{\substack{X\in\mathbb{R}^{n\times n}\\ X>0,\ \mathrm{tr}(X)=1}} -\mathrm{tr}\left((AP+PA^\top)(I+P)^{-1}\right)\notag \\ &=\sup_{\substack{X\in\mathbb{R}^{n\times n}\\ X>0,\ \mathrm{tr}(X)=1}} -2\mathrm{tr}\left(A(I+P^{-1})^{-1}\right)\\ &=-2\inf_{\substack{X\in\mathbb{R}^{n\times n}\\ X>0,\ \mathrm{tr}(X)=1}} \mathrm{tr}\left(A(I+P^{-1})^{-1}\right)\notag\\ &=-2\inf_{\substack{P\in\mathbb{R}^{n\times n}\\ P>0,\ \mathrm{tr}(AP)=-\frac{1}{2}\\ AP+PA^\top<0}} \mathrm{tr}\left(A(I+P^{-1})^{-1}\right)\\ &\overset{(\#)}{=}-2\inf_{\substack{P\in\mathbb{R}^{n\times n}\\ P>0,\ \mathrm{tr}(AP)=-\frac{1}{2}\\ AP+PA^\top<0}} \mathrm{tr}\left(A-A(I+P)^{-1}\right) \\ &=-2\,\mathrm{tr}\,A + 2\sup_{\substack{P\in\mathbb{R}^{n\times n}\\ P>0,\ \mathrm{tr}(AP)=-\frac{1}{2}\\ AP+PA^\top<0}} \mathrm{tr}\left(A(I+P)^{-1}\right), \\\label{prob-eq} \end{align} where in (#) I used the Woodbury matrix identity.

$\endgroup$
3
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Notice that in the last line of your equivalent formulation, the infimum can be taken over $P > 0, \text{tr}(AP) = -\frac{1}{2}$. This is because whenever $X>0$ and $A$ is Hurwitz, it is guaranteed that $P>0$. Not sure if this is easier to deal with ... $\endgroup$ Sep 13, 2018 at 18:50
  • $\begingroup$ @AbhishekHalder: Nice observation, thanks! I've included it in the equivalent formulation of the problem. $\endgroup$
    – Ludwig
    Sep 14, 2018 at 0:34
  • $\begingroup$ @AbhishekHalder: On second thought, I think that the infimum can be taken over $P>0$, $\mathrm{tr}(AP)=-1/2$, only if we add the further constraint $AP+PA^\top<0$. $\endgroup$
    – Ludwig
    Sep 15, 2018 at 22:14

2 Answers 2

2
$\begingroup$

Not a full answer, but some ideas. From the last line of your equivalent formulation, we need to solve

$$ J^{*} = \sup_{\substack{P\in\mathbb{R}^{n\times n}\\ P>0,\ \mathrm{tr}(AP)=-\frac{1}{2}}} \mathrm{tr}\left(A(I+P)^{-1}\right), $$

which, after letting $Q:=I + P$, and $a:=\text{tr}(A)$, becomes

$$J^{*} = \sup_{\substack{Q\in\mathbb{R}^{n\times n}\\ Q>I,\ \mathrm{tr}(AQ)=a-\frac{1}{2}}} \mathrm{tr}\left(AQ^{-1}\right).$$

If $A$ were negative diagonal then surely $\mathrm{tr}\left(AQ^{-1}\right)$ would have been concave, making the above a convex optimization problem. (Question: does concavity still hold for Hurwitz $A$?)

In any case, the first order optimality conditions give: $\lambda Q A Q = A$, where $\lambda >0$ is the Lagrange multiplier, and $\mathrm{tr}(AQ)=a-\frac{1}{2}$. Taking trace of $\lambda Q A Q = A$ gives $J^{*}=\lambda(a-1/2)$, where $\lambda>0$ remains to be determined (not sure yet how).

$\endgroup$
3
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks for sharing your ideas! Shouldn't be $Q> I$ instead of $Q> 0$? $\endgroup$
    – Ludwig
    Sep 15, 2018 at 18:45
  • $\begingroup$ You are right, corrected. $\endgroup$ Sep 15, 2018 at 21:49
  • $\begingroup$ Actually, solving $Q>I$ from $\lambda Q A Q = A$ is same as solving for $P>0$ from the algebraic Riccati equation: $PAP + PA + AP + (1 - 1/\lambda)A = 0$. $\endgroup$ Sep 15, 2018 at 22:07
1
$\begingroup$

In fact, the solution seems to be invariant under similarity transformations of $A$, i.e. $A\mapsto M A M^{T}$, where $M\in O(n)$.

Edit: I think I need to add the assumption of $X$ being symmetric to apply the law of inertia. But since $X$ appears in the Lyapunov equation, it is standard to assume that $X$ is symmetric.

Indeed, let $m(A)$ be the maximum as defined by $$m(A)=\max_{\substack{X\in\text{Sym}(n)\\ X>0,\ \mathrm{tr}(X)=1}} \mathrm{tr}\left(X(I+P(X,A))^{-1}\right),$$

where $P(X,A)$ is the solution to the Lyapunov equation with parameters $X,A$. It can be shown that $P(MXM^T,MAM^{T})=MP(X,A)M^T$ for all orthogonal $M$. Using invariance of the trace under cyclical permutations, as well as the fact that the constraint space is preserved under $X\mapsto MXM^T$ (Sylvester's law of inertia plus invariance of the trace), we obtain $$m(MAM^{T})=m(A).$$

$\endgroup$
7
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, $X$ is supposed to be symmetric and positive definite. I'm wondering whether your comment can be used to show that $m(A)$ depends only on the eigenvalues of $A$. $\endgroup$
    – Ludwig
    Sep 4, 2018 at 16:02
  • $\begingroup$ This follows from the last equation. The eigenvalues of $A$ and $MAM^T$ are the same. $\endgroup$
    – S.Surace
    Sep 4, 2018 at 18:21
  • $\begingroup$ Or maybe I misunderstood your comment. Are you saying that you found two matrices $A,A'$ that are not related by an orthogonal transformation, but have the same eigenvalues, and $m(A)=m(A')$? Then I do not know how to show that this holds in general. $\endgroup$
    – S.Surace
    Sep 4, 2018 at 19:01
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, this is what I observed in my simulations and I would like to prove (or disprove). $\endgroup$
    – Ludwig
    Sep 4, 2018 at 19:13
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ If $m$ indeed depends only on the spectrum of $A$ this should reflect a symmetry of your stochastic system. But you are probably right that we don't get much more insight from that; the claim should be simply provable from the explicit form of $m$. $\endgroup$
    – S.Surace
    Sep 7, 2018 at 19:46

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.