7
$\begingroup$

This is hard, so I am looking for partial results and how hard it is.

Let $n>4$. Is it true that the hyperelliptic curve $x^n=y(y+1)$ doesn't have rational point with $x \ne 0$?

If necessarily assume $n$ is prime.

Integral points on the curve are heavily studied.

It is one of the simplest exponential diophantine equations over the rationals.

What tools are used for solving it?

FLT implies there are no solutions with $y$ being $n$-th power.

Added No solution for given $n$ imply Fermat Last Theorem for $n$ as discussed here see (3) with a=1

Assume $u^n-v^n=1$ is counterexample to FLT. Then $(uv)^n=v^n(v^n+1)$ and $(uv,v^n)$ is non trivial rational point on the curve.

$\endgroup$
8
  • $\begingroup$ Is not this all discussed here? mathoverflow.net/q/225324/4312 $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 29, 2018 at 6:40
  • $\begingroup$ @FedorPetrov I think the curves are the same, but the questions are different. $\endgroup$
    – joro
    Commented Aug 29, 2018 at 8:12
  • $\begingroup$ Is not it the same question - to prove that there are only trivial rational points? $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 29, 2018 at 8:52
  • $\begingroup$ @FedorPetrov I am asking about tools and partial results. $\endgroup$
    – joro
    Commented Aug 29, 2018 at 9:27
  • $\begingroup$ It is essentially equivalent to FLT, so this is equivalent to the tools of studying FLT. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 29, 2018 at 9:39

1 Answer 1

18
$\begingroup$

There are no such solutions. Let $x=a/b$ and $y=c/d$ be reduced fractions. Then $a^n/b^n=(c(c+d))/d^2$ and since both sides are reduced fractions we get that $a^n=c(c+d)$ and $b^n=d^2$. From the first equation we deduce that $c=e^n$ and $c+d=f^n$ since $c$ and $c+d$ are co-prime and their product is an $n$-th power. Then $d=f^n-e^n$ so $(f^n-e^n)^2=b^n$. If $n$ is even write $n=2k$ and take square root to get $f^{2k}-e^{2k}=\pm b^k$. If the sign is $+$ then we get $f^{2k}=e^{2k}+b^k$ and since $k>2$ this implies by FLT that one of $e,b,f$ is 0. If $f=0$ then $y=-1$ so $x=0$. $b=0$ is certainly impossible. Finally, $e=0$ means $y=0$. So this option is excluded. If the sign is $-$ we get $e^{2k}=f^{2k}+b^k$ and the same reasoning works.

If $n$ is odd, from $(f^n-e^n)^2=b^n$ we deduce that $b$ is a square so $b=g^2$ and then we can extract the root to get $f^n-e^n= \pm g^n$ and proceed in a way similar to the case where $n$ is even.

$\endgroup$
1

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .