I improve my previous question. Because this conjecture is exactly natural development of A Muirhead Like Inequality and Muirhead's Inequality so I think the conjecture is true. But I can not prove it. So I am looking for a proof of a conjecture as follows.

Inequality 1:Let $n>2$ and $1 \le m \le n$ be integers. Let $x_1, \dots, x_n$ and $y_1,\dots, y_n$ be nonnegative real numbers such that $(x_1,\dots, x_n)$ majorizes $(y_1,\dots, y_n)$. Then for all reals $0 \leq a_1, a_2,\cdots,a_n \leq 1$,$$\sum\limits_{sym}\left( \sum\limits_{sym} x_{i_1}^{a_{p_1}} \cdots x_{i_m}^{a_{p_m}} \right) \leq \sum\limits_{sym}\left( \sum\limits_{sym} y_{i_1}^{a_{p_1}} \cdots y_{i_m}^{a_{p_m}} \right) $$

The summations are of course meant to be respectively over all $m$-tuples $(i_1,\dots,i_m),(p_1,\dots,p_m)$ with pairwise distinct entries.

- When $m=n$ this inequality is A Muirhead Like Inequality

Inequality 2:Let $n>2$ and $1 \le m \le n$ be integers. Let $x_1, \dots, x_n$ and $y_1,\dots, y_n$ be nonnegative real numbers such that $(x_1,\dots, x_n)$ majorizes $(y_1,\dots, y_n)$. Then for all reals $ a_1, a_2,\dots,a_n \geq 0$,$$\sum\limits_{sym}\left( \sum\limits_{sym} a_{i_1}^{x_{p_1}} \cdots a_{i_m}^{x_{p_m}} \right) \geq \sum\limits_{sym}\left( \sum\limits_{sym} a_{i_1}^{y_{p_1}} \cdots a_{i_m}^{y_{p_m}} \right)$$

- When $m=n$, this inequality is just Muirhead.