Let $k$ be a field of characteristic zero (I do not mind to assume that $k=\mathbb{C}$, if things are easier in this case). Lüroth theorem says that a field $L$, $k \subset L \subset k(x)$ containing a nonconstant polynomial over $k$ is equal to $k(h)$ for some $h \in k[x]$. More precisely, in Lüroth theorem $h \in k(x)$, and E. Noether has proved that $h \in k[x]$ (see "Selected Topics on Polynomials" by A. Schinzel). Unfortunately, I do not have the book of A. Schinzel (I have learnt about Noether's result from Formanek's paper), so I do not have an available proof for this result.

Given $f=f(x),g=g(x) \in k[x]$, $k \subset k(f,g) \subseteq k(x)$, Lüroth-Noether theorem says that $k(f,g)=k(h)$ for some $h=h(x) \in k[x]$.

(1)What exactly can be said about $h$ in terms of $f$ and $g$? (Except, of course, that $h \in k(f,g)$).

I have played a little with several $f$'s and $g$'s and I have not found $f$ and $g$ with $1<\gcd(\deg(f),\deg(g))<min\{\deg(f),\deg(g)\}$ such that $k(f,g)=k(x)$. For example: (i) $f=x^2,g=x^3$ with $\gcd(\deg(x^2),\deg(x^3))=1$. (ii) $f=x^3,g=x^6+x^2$ with $\gcd(\deg(x^3),\deg(x^6+x^2))=3=min\{\deg(f),\deg(g)\}$.

(2)Therefore, if $k(f,g)=k(x)$, then I conjecture that necessarily $\gcd(\deg(f),\deg(g))=1$ or $\deg(f) | \deg(g)$ or $\deg(g) | \deg(f)$: Is my conjecture true or false? (Perhaps it is possible to find a counterexample to my conjecture with some help from algebraic geometry?).

Any hints and comments are welcome! Thank you very much.