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Suppose that P is a Borel subset of Baire $\times$ Baire, such that for every pair $x,x'$ of reals in the horizontal copy of Baire,

if: $x,x'$ are $E_0$-equivalent (that is, $x(n)=y(n)$ for all but finite $n$)

then: the vertical cross-sections $P_x$ and $P_{x'}$ coincide.

Does this imply that $P_x=P_{x'}$ for all $x,x'$ in Baire (or at least for all $x,x'$ in a set $X$ large in the sense of measure or category) ?

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    $\begingroup$ Isn't the equivalence relation $E_0\subset Baire\times Baire$ a counterexample to this problem? $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 26, 2018 at 12:43
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    $\begingroup$ I see ... it is $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 27, 2018 at 8:08

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