Is there a conformal diffeomorphism between R3 minus a line and R2 x S1? There exists a conformal diffeomorphism between $\mathbb{R}^3$ and $S_3$ (less a point):
$$
g = dr^2+r^2\left(d\theta^2 + \sin^2\theta\ d\phi^2\right)
$$
$$
r = R \tan \frac{\alpha}{2}
$$
$$
g = \frac{R^2}{4\cos^4\frac{\alpha}{2}}\left[d\alpha^2+\sin^2\alpha\left(d\theta^2 + \sin^2\theta\ d\phi^2\right)\right]
$$
There also exists a conformal diffeomorphism between $\mathbb{R}^3$ (less a point) and the cylinder $\mathbb{R}\times S_2$:
$$
r = R\ e^{x/R}
$$
$$
g=e^{2x/R}\left[dx^2+R^2\left(d\theta^2 + \sin^2\theta\ d\phi^2\right)\right]
$$
There does not appear to be a conformal diffeomorphism between $\mathbb{R}^3$ (less a line) and the cylinder $\mathbb{R^2}\times S_1$. At least, my attempts to find one starting from $\mathbb{R^3}$ in cylindrical coordinates:
$$
g = dz^2+ d\rho^2 +\rho^2 d\phi^2
$$
and remapping $(z, \rho)$ have failed. So my questions are:
1) Is it true that there is no such diffeomorphism?
2) If so, how do you show that? I think that local invariants like the Cotton tensor have nothing to say, because both $\mathbb{R}^3$ and $\mathbb{R^2}\times S_1$ are flat, and instead there is some kind of global obstruction.
Edited:
My original question was not sufficiently precise, it asked about existence of a conformal map, but I really meant existence of a conformal diffeomorphism. As Ben pointed out, there is the conformal map
$$
\mathbb{R}^3 \to \mathbb{R}^2 \times S_1
$$
$$
(x, y, z) \mapsto (x, y, \phi= \mathrm{mod}(z, 2\pi))
$$
but that is not injective and so not a diffeomorphism.
 A: The map $\phi(x,y,\theta)=(x,y,e^{i \theta})$ is a locally isometric covering map, as it is given by taking the usual covering map $\Phi(\theta)=e^{i \theta}$, $\Phi \colon \mathbb{R} \to S^1$, $2 \pi$ periodic, and throwing in $x,y$. In particular, this map is a conformal map, but not a conformal diffeomorphism. Its lift is $\tilde\phi(x,y,\theta)=(x,y,\theta+2\pi)$, a conformal diffeomorphism. The metric is $dx^2+dy^2+dz^2$ where $z=2\pi \theta$.
Update: the question is now whether $\mathbb{R}^3$ minus a line is conformally diffeomorphic to $\mathbb{R}^2 \times S^1$. It is not: $\mathbb{R}^3$ minus a line has developing map taking it to $S^3$ minus a circle. (The map is your usual conformal map to $S^3$ as given in the question above.) On the other hand, $\mathbb{R}^2 \times S^1$ admits a conformal covering map (as given in my previous remarks) by $\mathbb{R}^3$, so its developing map has image $S^3$ minus a point. The same argument proves that $\mathbb{R}^3$ minus any closed set is not conformal to $\mathbb{R}^2 \times S^1$. See Richard Sharpe's book Differential Geometry to read about developing maps of conformal geometries.
A: As Ben noted above and in the comments, my answer doesn't make any sense.  Please ignore what follows and I apologize for wasting your time.
$\textbf{IGNORE:}$
Given a conformal map $\phi: \mathbb{R}^{3}\rightarrow \mathbb{R}^{2}\times \mathbb{S}^{1},$ we may lift to a conformal map $\widetilde{\phi}: \mathbb{R}^{3}\rightarrow \mathbb{R}^{3}.$  By Liouville's theorem (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Liouville%27s_theorem_(conformal_mappings)), the map $\phi$ is a Mobius transformation, in particular it is the restriction of a diffeomorphism $\mathbb{S}^{3}\rightarrow \mathbb{S}^{3}$ which maps $\infty$ to $\infty.$  But, the map $\widetilde{\phi}$ satisfies, in particular, $\widetilde{\phi}(0,0,1)=\widetilde{\phi}(0,0,n),$ as a result of the fact that it is a lift.  Here, we have normalized the deck group of the cover $\mathbb{R}^{3}\rightarrow \mathbb{R}^{2}\times \mathbb{S}^{1}$ to be generated by the action $(x,y,z)\mapsto (x,y,z+1).$ 
This proves that $\widetilde{\phi}$ can not be the restriction of a diffeomorphism $\mathbb{S}^{3}\rightarrow \mathbb{S}^{3}$ (or even a bijection), and therefore, there is no conformal map $\phi:\mathbb{R}^{3}\rightarrow \mathbb{R}^{2}\times \mathbb{S}^{1}.$
$\textbf{IGNORE}$
