I posted this on Math.Stack.Exchange with no luck, so I thought it would be perhaps better suited for this site.
We recall that a domain of holomorphy is a domain in $\mathbb{C}^n$ that is holomorphically convex.
It is quite standard in many textbooks, for example Shabat's Introduction to Complex Analysis - Part II, that if $D$ is a domain of holomorphy, then $f(D)$ is a domain of holomorphy if $f$ is a biholomorphic mapping.
I cannot find any proofs of necessity however. Can we weaken the assumptions on $f$ at all?
Moreover, what about $\mathscr{F}$-convex domains, for some class $\mathscr{F}$? That is, under what conditions is the image of an $\mathscr{F}$-convex set again $\mathscr{F}$-convex?
Natural choices for $\mathscr{F}$ include holomorphic functions, polynomials and rational functions.
If $\mathscr{F}$ is taken to be linear functions, then we recall that such functions that map $\mathscr{F}$-convex sets to $\mathscr{F}$-convex sets are the affine mappings.