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A bit of plotting suggests that $\zeta^{(k)}(s) < 0$ for all $s\in (0,1)$ and all integers $k\geq 0$. (Or, what is the same: $\zeta^{(k)}(s)$ has no zeroes on $(0,1)$.) Is there a brief, clean proof of this apparent fact (and/or a reference for it)?

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    $\begingroup$ The Taylor series for $\zeta(z)$ at $z=0$ has radius of convergence $1$, so it suffices to show all coefficients of it are negative... $\zeta(z) =- 0.5000000000- 0.9189385335\,z- 1.003178229\,{z}^{2}- 1.000785195\,{ z}^{3}- 0.9998793011\,{z}^{4}- 1.000001942\,{z}^{5}+\dots$ $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 29, 2017 at 19:42
  • $\begingroup$ Sure, but how do you do that? (Does it follow easily from the functional equation?) $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 29, 2017 at 19:51
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    $\begingroup$ They are indeed eventually negative: write $$\zeta(1-s)+s^{-1}=\sum_n (\zeta^{(n)}(0)/n!+1)(1-s)^n$$ which converges around $s=0$ and is $O(1)$ at $s=0$, thus $\zeta^{(n)}(0)/n!+1 \rightarrow 0$ as $n \rightarrow \infty$. $\endgroup$
    – user41593
    Commented Oct 29, 2017 at 19:59
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    $\begingroup$ One can make Emanuele's argument quantitative by observing from the residue theorem that $\frac{\zeta^{(n)}(0)}{n!} = -1 + \frac{1}{2\pi i} \int_\gamma \frac{\zeta(s)}{s^{n+1}}\ ds$ for any contour $\gamma$ going anticlockwise around both $0$ and $1$, e.g. the circle of radius $2$. One can use numerical bounds on $\zeta$ on such a contour to get an exponentially decaying bound for the integral which should suffice to obtain the claim for all but a small number of $n$ (perhaps just the ones listed by Gerald, in fact, given how fast the coefficients seem to converge to $-1$). $\endgroup$
    – Terry Tao
    Commented Oct 29, 2017 at 20:04
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    $\begingroup$ A rigorous but not quick way: write the Abel-Plana formula as $$\zeta(s)=\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{s-1}+\int_0^\infty \frac{2\sin(s \arctan x)}{(1+x^2)^{s/2}(e^{2\pi x}-1)} dx$$ and bound the modulus in an appropriate way... $\endgroup$
    – user41593
    Commented Oct 29, 2017 at 21:03

2 Answers 2

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The coefficients computed in the comments appear to imply that the Taylor expansion at $s=0$ of $\zeta(s)+\frac1{1-s}-\frac12$ has very small coefficients, which would imply the result.

Following section 2.1 in Titchmarsh Theory of the Riemann zeta function, by integration/summation by parts (or one step of Euler-Maclaurin), $$\zeta(s)=\frac1{s-1}+\frac12+s\int_1^{\infty}\frac{1/2-\{x\}}{x^{s+1}}dx$$ absolutely convergent for $\Re(s)>0$ where $\{x\}$ denotes the fractional part of $x$.

Integrating by parts again (or two steps of Euler-Maclaurin), $$\zeta(s)=\frac1{s-1}+\frac12+\frac{s}{12}-(s+1)\int_1^{\infty}(\{x\}^2-\{x\}+\frac16)x^{-s-2}dx$$

Consider the integrand $(\{x\}^2-\{x\}+\frac16)x^{-s-2}dx$ as a function of $s$. Its Taylor coefficients are alternating in sign and dominated by the coefficients of $\frac16x^{-s-2}$, so the Taylor coefficients of the absolutely convergent integral are dominated by those of $$\int_1^{\infty}\frac16x^{-s-2}dx = \frac1{6(s+1)}$$ and the result follows.

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    $\begingroup$ Since the coefficients are alternating and $\leq 1/6$ in absolute value, the coefficients of the Taylor series multiplied by s+1 are still $\leq 1/6$ in absolute value. So, in the end, this does show that all Taylor coefficients of zeta around s=0 are negative, and that, for $k\geq 2$, they are between $-5/6$ and $-7/6$. Thanks! $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 30, 2017 at 3:13
  • $\begingroup$ Another good reference for these kinds of formulae is Computational Methods and Experiments in Analytic Number Theory. The contour integral approach should work too, bringing in bounds from the functional equation. It's very tempting to try to prove positivity of $\zeta'(s)/\zeta(s)$ but it becomes difficult to get bounds between 0 and 1/2, especially once different from between $-1/2$ and $0$ $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 30, 2017 at 18:38
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Here is a proof that $\zeta^{(i)}(s) < 0$ for all $s \in [0,1[$ and $i \in \mathbf N$ (I can't say whether it counts as brief and clean, though).


We'll use that the Riemann zeta can be expanded as a Laurent series about $s = 1$, so that $$\tag{1} \zeta(s) = \frac{1}{s-1} + \sum_{n =0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n \gamma_n}{n!} (s-1)^n,\quad\text{for all }s \ne 1,$$ where $\gamma_n$ is the $n$-th Stieltjes constant. We'll also need an inequality of A.F. Lavrik from

On the main term of the divisor's problem and the power series of the Riemann's zeta function in a neighbourhood of its pole, Trudy Mat. Inst. Akad. Nauk. SSSR 142 (1976), 165-173 (in Russian),

which yields $$ \tag{2}|\gamma_n| \le \frac{n!}{2^{n+1}},\quad\text{for all }n \in \mathbf N^+. $$ In particular, (2) implies that the series on the right-hand side of (1) is absolutely convergent in the interval $[-a,a]$ for every $a \in [0,1[$.

With this in mind, let $k \in \mathbf N^+$. We have $$ \zeta^{(k)}(s) = - \frac{k!}{(1-s)^{k+1}} + (-1)^k \sum_{n\ge k} \frac{\gamma_n}{(n-k)!} (1-s)^n,\quad\text{for all }s \in {]-1,1[}\,, $$ and hence $$ \tag{3}\zeta^{(k)}(0) = - k! + (-1)^k \sum_{n\ge k} \frac{\gamma_n}{(n-k)!}. $$ We claim $$ \tag{4}\sum_{n \ge k} \frac{\gamma_n}{(n-k)!\,k!} < 1. $$ Indeed, a classical result from Section 1 of

W.E. Briggs, Some Constants Associated with the Riemann Zeta-Function, Mich. Math. J. 3 (1955), No. 2, 117-121,

gives that $\gamma_n < 0$ for infinitely many $n$. Therefore, it is sufficient for (4) to hold that $$ \sum_{n \ge k} \frac{|\gamma_n|}{(n-k)!\,k!} \le 1. $$ This, in turn, follows from (2) and the fact that $$ \sum_{n \ge 0} \frac{1}{2^{n+1}} \binom{n}{m} = 1, \quad\text{for all }m \in \mathbf N $$ (see Noam Elkies's comment below). By (3) and the considerations made by Gerald Edgar in the comments to the OP, we can thus conclude that $\zeta^{(i)}(s) < 0$ for all $s \in [0,1[$ and $i \in \mathbf N$ (recall that $\zeta(0) < 0$).

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    $\begingroup$ You remember correctly; e.g. $\sum_{n \geq 0} 2^{m-n} {n \choose m} = \sum_{n \geq m} 2^{m-n} {n \choose m}$ is the value at $x=1/2$ of the power series for $(1-x)^{-(m+1)}$. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 29, 2017 at 22:42
  • $\begingroup$ Here is a link to Lavrik's article cited above: mathnet.ru/php/… $\endgroup$
    – efs
    Commented Oct 29, 2017 at 22:58
  • $\begingroup$ Doesn't this show that $\sum_{n>=k} \frac{\gamma_n}{(n-k)! k!}$ have absolute value at most $2$, rather than that it has absolute value less than $1$? I agree the argument is enough if we assume a bound a little stronger than Lavrik's. (Apparently $|\gamma_n|\leq n!/\pi^n$ is true.) $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 30, 2017 at 2:56
  • $\begingroup$ @HAHelfgott After some hours of sleep and with a fresher mind, I see that there were two typos in my old answer, one of which is relevant to your comment: The denominator on the right-hand side of Lavrik's inequality should be $2^{n+1}$ (and not $2^n$). Moreover, the analysis of the "odd case" wasn't quite correct, so now I'm rather using that $\gamma_n<0$ for infinitely many $n$, which is a result of W.E. Briggs in the 1950s (for the record, there are upper bounds on the absolute value of the Stieltjes constants that are better than Lavrik's and make unnecessary to invoke Briggs's result). $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 30, 2017 at 13:57

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