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This came out of some work on the digamma function.

Let $(x)_k=x(x+1)\cdots(x+k-1)$ denote the Pochhammer symbol. Then,

Question. Can you prove/disprove this identity? $$\pmb{\frac{(\frac12)_j^2}{j!^2}}\sum_{i=0}^{j-1}\frac4{2i+1} =\sum_{i=0}^{j-1}\pmb{\frac{(\frac12)_i^2}{i!^2}}\frac1{j-i}.$$

I found this fascinating in view of fact that the factors in bold are able "go in and out" of the sum.

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    $\begingroup$ The identity can be found in this paper arxiv.org/abs/1005.2941 for example. There it came out of some work on the elliptic integral. I'm really intrigued by OP's claim that it came out of some work on the digamma function. @T. Amdeberhan, please could you elaborate? I can start a new question if you like... ;-) $\endgroup$
    – Nemo
    Commented Aug 13, 2021 at 6:34

3 Answers 3

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Here's a sketch of a proof using "creative telescoping."

Let $$T(i,j) = \frac{j!^2}{(\tfrac12)_j^2}\cdot \frac{(\tfrac12)_i^2}{i!^2}\frac1{j-i}.$$ Since the identity holds for $j=1$, it suffices to show that $$\sum_{i=0}^{j} T(i,j+1) -\sum_{i=0}^{j-1}T(i,j)=\frac{4}{2j+1};$$ i.e., that $$T(j,j+1) +\sum_{i=0}^{j-1}\bigl(T(i,j+1) - T(i,j)\bigr) = \frac{4}{2j+1}.\tag{1}$$ But it is easy to verify the indefinite summation $$\sum_{i=0}^{k}\bigl(T(i,j+1) - T(i,j)\bigr) =\frac{j!^2}{(\tfrac32)_j^2}\cdot \frac{(\tfrac32)_k^2}{k!^2}\frac{1}{k-j}$$ from which $(1)$ follows by a straightforward computation.

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  • $\begingroup$ It's not clear how you could "verify the indefinite summation". $\endgroup$
    – Lewi_Sol
    Commented May 31, 2017 at 14:37
  • $\begingroup$ To prove that $\sum_{i=0}^k a_i = b_k$ we need only check that $a_0=b_0$ and $b_k - b_{k-1}=a_k$. $\endgroup$
    – Ira Gessel
    Commented May 31, 2017 at 16:29
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The identity under question can be found in the paper S. Boettner, V.H. Moll The integrals in Gradshteyn and Ryzhik. Part 16: Complete elliptic integrals, pages 11-12 https://arxiv.org/abs/1005.2941

enter image description here

The proof given by OP is miraculously similar to the one in this paper, not only in the method used, but also in the choice of words and formatting of equations. By the way, one of the authors V. Moll, is a frequent collaborator of the OP's, and they have written numerous papers that start in the same way The integrals in Gradshteyn and Ryzhik. Part ..., e.g. https://arxiv.org/abs/1004.2440. Coincidences happen, and with some people they happen more often than with others, this is just law of probabilities. No foul play is suspected here. But it is really intriguing to know, how is the identity under question related to digamma function, as OP claims? Unfortunately his proof does not contain any digamma functions. But in the paper the identity naturally came out of some work on the elliptic integral. Please, @T.Amdeberhan, would you share your insight? It is really intriguing to know, how is digamma function related here?

Here is a screenshot of OP's own answer, just in case:

enter image description here

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Let me add an alternative proof I just found.

Using the relation $(-x)_k=(-1)^k(x-k+1)_k$ and $(\frac12)_{n-k}(\frac12-n)_k=(-1)^k(\frac12)_n$, rewrite $$\sum_{i=0}^{j-1}\frac{(\frac12)_i^2}{i!^2}\frac1{j-i} =\sum_{k=0}^{j-1}\frac{(\frac12)_{j-k-1}^2}{(j-k-1)!^2}\frac1{k+1} =\frac{(\frac12)_j^2}{j!^2}\sum_{k=0}^{j-1}\frac{(-j)_{k+1}^2}{(\frac12-j)_{k+1}^2}\frac1{k+1}.$$ The assertion amounts to $\sum_{k=0}^{j-1}\frac{(-j)_{k+1}^2}{(\frac12-j)_{k+1}^2}\frac1{k+1}=\sum_{k=0}^{j-1}\frac4{2k+1}$. Apply $(x)_{k+1}=x(x+1)_k$ so that $$\sum_{k=0}^{j-1}\frac{(-j)_{k+1}^2}{(\frac12-j)_{k+1}^2}\frac1{k+1} =\frac{j^2}{(\frac12-j)^2} \sum_{k=0}^{j-1}\frac{(1-j)_k^2}{(\frac32-j)_k^2}\frac1{k+1} =\frac{j^2}{(\frac12-j)^2} \sum_{k=0}^{j-1}\frac{(1-j)_k^2(1)_k^2}{(\frac32-j)_k^2(2)_kk!}.$$ The RHS is a balanced ${}_4F_3$ series and can be transformed by Bailey tract [Generalized Hypergeometric series, Stechert-Hafner, New York, 1964, p.56] or any classical reference: \begin{align} {}_4F_3[x,y,z,-m;u,v,w]&=\frac{(v-z)_m(w-z)_m}{(v)_m(w)_m} \times \\ &{}_4F_3[u-x,u-y,z-m;1-v+z-m,1-w+z-m,u]. \end{align} Let $y=z=1, x=1-j, m=j-1, u=v=\frac32-j$ and $w=2$. Then, \begin{align} \sum_{k=0}^{j-1}\frac{(1-j)_k^2(1)_k^2}{(\frac32-j)_k^2(2)_kk!} &={}_4F_3[1,1,1-j,1-j;\frac32-j,\frac32-j,2] \\ &=\frac{(\frac12-j)_{j-1}(1)_{j-1}}{(\frac32-j)_{j-1}(2)_{j-1}} {}_4F_3[1,\frac12,-j+\frac12,1-j;-j+\frac32,\frac32,1-j] \\ &=\frac{2j-1}j\sum_{k=0}^{j-1}\frac{(\frac12)_k(-j+\frac12)_k}{(\frac32)_k(-j+\frac32)_k} \\ &=\frac{(2j-1)^2}j\sum_{k=0}^{j-1}\frac1{(2k+1)(2j-1-2k)} \\ &=\frac{(2j-1)^2}{2j^2}\sum_{k=0}^{j-1}\left[\frac1{2k+1}+\frac1{2j-1-2k} \right] \\ &=\frac{(2j-1)^2}{j^2}\sum_{k=0}^{j-1}\frac1{2k+1}. \end{align} This completes the proof.

ADDED. The identity under question can be found in the paper S. Boettner, V.H. Moll The integrals in Gradshteyn and Ryzhik. Part 16: Complete elliptic integrals, pages 11-12 https://arxiv.org/abs/1005.2941 Also read on page 14 to find: "Acknowledgments. The authors wish to thank T. Amdeberhan for many comments on a first draft of this paper. In particular, both proofs of Lemma 7.1 are due to him."

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    $\begingroup$ Ok. This added comment proves one thing: you knew the answer to the question you posted and we are back to meta.mathoverflow.net/q/5116/82588 $\endgroup$
    – Nemo
    Commented Sep 9, 2021 at 17:09

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