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Question 1

Let $V,W$ be normed spaces and $\iota:V\times W \rightarrow V\otimes W$ be the canonical (algebraic) bilinear map.

It can be easily shown that for any normed space $X$ and a continuous bilinear map $\phi:V\times W\rightarrow X$, there exists a unique continuous linear transformation $\psi:V\otimes_\pi W\rightarrow X$ satisfying $\psi\circ \iota=\phi$.

Hence, $(V\otimes_\pi W,\iota)$ solves this universal mapping problem.

Does $(V\otimes_\epsilon W,\iota)$ also solve this universal mapping problem? If so, then $id:V\otimes_{\epsilon} W\rightarrow V\otimes_{\pi} W$ must be a linear homeomorphism and this means that $\epsilon$-norm and $\pi$-norm are equivalent. Are they?

Question 2

Say, the answer for the question $1$ is no. Then, what's the importance of $\epsilon$-norm? Is there any functorial property related to $\epsilon$-norm?

Question 3

Let $V$ be a normed space and define $T^{r,s}(V):=V\otimes \cdots \otimes V \otimes V^*\otimes \cdots \otimes V^*$ be the tensor product of type $(r,s)$. (Here, $V^*$ is the topological dual of $V$)

Let $\mathscr{T}(V):=\oplus_{r,s\in\mathbb{N}} T^{r,s}(V)$ be the tensor algebra. Then, does there exists a natural topology $\tau$ on $\mathscr{T}$ satisfying the following?

(i) the subspace topology on $T^{r,s}(V)$ induced by $\tau$ is the topology generated by the $\pi$-norm (that is, the subspace topology is the same as the topology on $V\otimes_\pi \cdots \otimes_\pi V \otimes_\pi V^*\otimes_\pi \cdots \otimes_\pi V^*$)

(ii) $\tau$ is normable

(iii) the multiplication operator $\mathscr{T}(V)\times \mathscr{T}(V)\rightarrow \mathscr{T}(V)$ is continuous

More generally, is there a natural norm on graded algebra of normed spaces so that each component becomes a subspace?

Thank you in advance!

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    $\begingroup$ $\pi$ and $\epsilon$ are rarely equivalent. But they can be: see "Counterexamples to a conjecture of Grothendieck" by Pisier. $\epsilon$ is induced by regarding $V\otimes W$ as a subspace of the operators from $V^*$ to $W$. For Q3, what about the $\pi$ norm on each $T^{r,s}$ and the $\ell^1$ norm on the direct sum? $\endgroup$ Commented May 24, 2017 at 12:32
  • $\begingroup$ @MatthewDaws Oh right! Thank you so much! $\endgroup$
    – Rubertos
    Commented May 24, 2017 at 12:40
  • $\begingroup$ But the $\ell^1$-norm does not make the multiplication map continuous, doesn't it? $\endgroup$
    – Rubertos
    Commented May 24, 2017 at 12:46
  • $\begingroup$ Perhaps I have misunderstood the product on $T(V)$, in this setting. Could you explain? $\endgroup$ Commented May 24, 2017 at 13:11
  • $\begingroup$ @MatthewDaws No, you were completely right. I misthought. Sorry :) $\endgroup$
    – Rubertos
    Commented May 24, 2017 at 13:21

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