This is just a question about notation - probably useless, but it's always baffled me:
Why was $\Omega$ chosen to denote the based loop functor?
I once heard someone speculate: "It's because $\Omega$ looks like... a loop?"
Is it really as simple as that? (If so, clever!) Can anyone verify and/or know more?
Thanks in advance!
(PS. I originally asked this question on StackExchange, but it seems Overflow is a better fit.)