I previously asked the following question of MathOverflow: Showing that $\phi$ is a Jordan morphism in which I was asking assistance with proving the following statement made in the introduction Spectrum preservig linear mappings in Banach algerbas by B. Aupetit and H. du T. Mouton (1994).
If $\phi$ is a linear mapping from a Banach algebra $A$ into another one $B$ such that $\phi(1)=1$ and $\phi(x)^{-1}=\phi(x^{-1})$ for $x$ invertible, then using exponentials it is easy to prove that $\phi$ is a Jordan morphism.
However, while reading the paper Spectral Characterization of Idempotents and Invertibility Preserving Linear Maps by M. Brešar and P. Šemrl (1999), I came across the following:
Let $A$ and $B$ be semi-simple Banach algebras and $\phi:A \to B$ a unital bijective linear map preserving invertibility. It is then conjectured that $\phi$ must be a Jordan isomorphism.
My question: When comparing the statements of the two papers, is the condition that $A$ and $B$ are semi-simple necessary to ensure that $\phi$ is Jordan?
I understand that the bijective condition of the latter statement, simply changes the (homo)morphism of the first statement into a (iso)morphism. I am simply interested in seeing how the condition that $A$ and $B$ being semi-simple comes into play.