I haven't taken any number theory courses but out of curiosity I learned about Dirichlet's approximation theorem. Afterwards, it occurred to me to define the following function $f$ using 'optimal' diophantine approximants:
$\forall \alpha \in \mathbb{R}_+ \setminus \mathbb{Q}$, let $\{\alpha_q\}_{q=1}^\infty \subset \mathbb{Q}$ denote the optimal diophantine approximants of $\alpha$:
\begin{equation} \forall q \in \mathbb{N}, |\alpha_q -\alpha| = \min_{n \in \mathbb{N}}|\frac{n}{q}-\alpha| \end{equation}
Using the language of functions rather than sequences we may define:
\begin{equation} \begin{cases} f: \mathbb{R}_+ \setminus \mathbb{Q} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}_+ \\ f(\alpha) = \sum_{q=1}^{\infty} |\alpha_q-\alpha| \end{cases} \end{equation}
My question is whether $\forall x \in \mathbb{R}_+ \setminus \mathbb{Q},f(x)< \infty $
If so, is there an elementary proof?